ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
In as much as Almira complained of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps, which among the following will the nurse anticipate as the MOST likely diagnosis of the physician after a vaginal examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with furosemide therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. Step 2: Inhibition of sodium reabsorption leads to increased water and electrolyte excretion, including potassium. Step 3: Increased potassium excretion can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide. Step 4: Hypokalemia can be dangerous, especially in patients with congestive heart failure, as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. Step 5: Therefore, patients with a history of congestive heart failure prescribed furosemide are at risk for developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.
Question 5 of 9
Upon entry of the patient to ER, the nurse must FIRST perform which nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cleanse the bite with soap and running water. This is the first nursing intervention because it is crucial to prevent infection. Cleaning the bite area helps remove bacteria and debris, reducing the risk of infection. Injecting with rabies immune globulin (choice A) and rabies vaccine (choice C) should be done later as per protocol after assessing the situation. Administering pain reliever (choice D) is important but not the first priority in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A 20-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain and missed menstrual periods for the past two months. She has a positive urine pregnancy test. On transvaginal ultrasound, an empty uterus is visualized, and there is fluid in the cul-de-sac. Which condition is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. In this scenario, the combination of missed periods, positive pregnancy test, and empty uterus on ultrasound with fluid in the cul-de-sac is highly suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. The presence of fluid in the cul-de-sac indicates possible blood from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, causing the severe lower abdominal pain. Ovarian cyst rupture (A) typically presents with less severe pain. Septic abortion (C) would present with signs of infection and products of conception in the uterus. Ovarian torsion (D) would present with acute onset of unilateral lower abdominal pain and a palpable adnexal mass, not fluid in the cul-de-sac.
Question 7 of 9
When a person vaccinated with a Covid-19 vaccine produces antibodies to the disease, the immunity is termed:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active artificial immunity. This is because the person's immune system is actively stimulated by the vaccine to produce antibodies against Covid-19. It is considered artificial because it is acquired through vaccination rather than natural exposure to the disease. B: Active natural immunity is incorrect because it refers to immunity acquired through natural exposure to the disease. C: Passive natural immunity is incorrect because it refers to temporary immunity passed from mother to baby through breast milk or placenta. D: Passive artificial immunity is incorrect because it refers to receiving pre-formed antibodies, such as through an injection of antibodies rather than the body producing them itself.
Question 8 of 9
In her recommendation, Nurse Gina stated, elderly should be given independence. This means ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because independence for the elderly means they have the freedom to make choices and decisions about their own lives. This empowers them to live according to their preferences and values. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't consider individual circumstances; choice B is important but doesn't capture the essence of independence; choice D is too broad and doesn't specifically address the concept of personal autonomy and agency for the elderly.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newly admitted patient. What aspect of cultural competence should the nurse prioritize during the assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Asking the patient about their cultural background and preferences shows respect for their individuality and acknowledges the importance of cultural competence in providing person-centered care. 2. It allows the nurse to gain valuable insights into the patient's beliefs, values, and practices, enabling them to deliver culturally appropriate care. 3. By prioritizing this aspect, the nurse can establish rapport, build trust, and enhance communication with the patient, leading to better outcomes. 4. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either involve assumptions, avoidance, or disregard for the patient's cultural background, which can lead to misunderstandings, discomfort, and ineffective care.