ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
In as much as Almira complained of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps, which among the following will the nurse anticipate as the MOST likely diagnosis of the physician after a vaginal examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.
Question 2 of 9
To promote drainage and reduce pressure from fluid, Nurse Selma nursing intervention is to have the child assume any of the following positions, EXCEPT _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lie on the affected area. This position would hinder drainage and increase pressure on the affected area. A: Tilt head to the side if sitting up, is correct as it promotes drainage. C: Putting pillows behind the head can also aid drainage. D: Lying on the non-affected ear can help reduce pressure on the affected side.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with chronic bronchitis presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and exertional dyspnea. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing the patient's symptoms and improving quality of life?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchodilator therapy. Bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, which can improve airflow and reduce symptoms such as cough, sputum production, and dyspnea in patients with chronic bronchitis. This intervention can help manage the patient's symptoms and improve their quality of life by making it easier for them to breathe. A: Smoking cessation counseling is important for overall management of chronic bronchitis, but it does not directly address the patient's current symptoms. B: Oral antibiotic therapy may be indicated if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, but it is not the first-line treatment for managing chronic bronchitis symptoms. C: Home oxygen therapy may be necessary for patients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not typically the first intervention for managing symptoms of chronic bronchitis without evidence of significant oxygen desaturation.
Question 4 of 9
The Nurse asks Baste, who is being admitted in a district hospital with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, about his employment status. She knows that _____.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A person's compliance with diabetes management can be influenced by economic status, as financial concerns can impact access to medications, healthy food, and healthcare. This can affect treatment adherence and overall health outcomes. Choice A is correct because addressing economic factors is important in promoting compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the relationship between economic status and compliance with diabetes management.
Question 5 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with petechiae, ecchymoses, and gingival bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal PT and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acquired von Willebrand syndrome. This condition is characterized by a defect in von Willebrand factor function, leading to prolonged bleeding time and mucocutaneous bleeding. Normal platelet count rules out Glanzmann thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier syndrome which are platelet disorders. Normal PT and aPTT rule out Hemophilia A, a coagulation factor deficiency. Acquired von Willebrand syndrome is the most likely cause based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inductive process. Qualitative research typically involves an inductive approach, where researchers gather data, analyze patterns, and develop theories or hypotheses based on the observed data. This allows for exploration and discovery of new insights. A) Deductive process is not a characteristic of qualitative research, as deductive reasoning involves starting with a hypothesis and testing it with data. B) Fixed research design is not common in qualitative research, which often uses flexible and adaptive designs to accommodate emergent findings. C) Control over the context is not a key characteristic of qualitative research, as it often involves studying real-world settings with natural contexts rather than controlled environments. In summary, the inductive process is a key characteristic of qualitative research as it allows for exploration and theory development based on observed data, distinguishing it from deductive approaches, fixed designs, and controlled contexts.
Question 8 of 9
Nurse Pedrito is teaching a client with Parkinson's disease on ways to prevent curvatures of the spine associated with the disease. To prevent spinal flexion, the nurse should tell the client to _________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Periodically lie in prone position without a neck pillow. This position helps to prevent spinal flexion by promoting extension of the spine and stretching of the hip flexors. Prone positioning also helps maintain alignment of the spine and prevents contractures. Resting in supine position (choice A) with the head elevated does not promote spinal extension. Sleeping only in dorsal recumbent position (choice B) may lead to spinal flexion. Sleeping on either side (choice D) does not specifically address spinal flexion prevention.
Question 9 of 9
A 20-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain and missed menstrual periods for the past two months. She has a positive urine pregnancy test. On transvaginal ultrasound, an empty uterus is visualized, and there is fluid in the cul-de-sac. Which condition is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. In this scenario, the combination of missed periods, positive pregnancy test, and empty uterus on ultrasound with fluid in the cul-de-sac is highly suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. The presence of fluid in the cul-de-sac indicates possible blood from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, causing the severe lower abdominal pain. Ovarian cyst rupture (A) typically presents with less severe pain. Septic abortion (C) would present with signs of infection and products of conception in the uterus. Ovarian torsion (D) would present with acute onset of unilateral lower abdominal pain and a palpable adnexal mass, not fluid in the cul-de-sac.