ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
In as much as Almira complained of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps, which among the following will the nurse anticipate as the MOST likely diagnosis of the physician after a vaginal examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 3 of 9
The physician prescribes decongestant intranasal spray. The nurse instructs the client on the proper use of the spray. Which of the following procedures is the CORRECT method?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tilt the head slightly forward and angle the bottle toward the side of the nostril. This method allows for proper administration of the spray into the nasal passage, ensuring effective delivery of the medication. Tilted head helps direct the spray towards the nasal cavity without causing discomfort or leakage. It also helps prevent the medication from dripping down the back of the throat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Finishing instillation in one nostril before moving to the other can lead to uneven distribution of medication and reduced effectiveness. B: Inhaling quickly may cause irritation and discomfort to the mucous membranes due to the forceful intake of the spray. C: Blowing the nose after spraying can expel the medication before it has a chance to be absorbed, decreasing its efficacy.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, resulting in heel pain that is typically worse with the first steps in the morning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Plantar fasciitis is the correct answer. It is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, leading to heel pain, especially in the morning. The plantar fascia is a band of tissue that connects the heel bone to the toes. The pain is usually worse with the first steps after resting. Achilles tendinitis involves inflammation of the Achilles tendon, which connects the calf muscles to the heel bone, causing pain at the back of the heel and ankle. Morton's neuroma is a condition involving a thickening of tissue around a nerve in the ball of the foot, leading to sharp, burning pain in the toes. Stress fracture of the calcaneus refers to a small crack in the heel bone due to repetitive stress or overuse, resulting in heel pain that may worsen with activity, but not specifically with the first steps in the morning.
Question 5 of 9
In providing tracheostomy care which of the following is the nurse's PRIORITY nursing action? The nurse ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secures clean ties before removing soiled ones. This is the priority action because securing clean ties prevents accidental dislodgement of the tracheostomy tube, ensuring the patient's airway remains patent. Cutting the dressing (A) or cleaning the incisions (B) can be important but not as critical as securing the tube. Using clean technique (D) is essential but not the priority in this situation.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following regulates the practice of the nursing profession?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing. This board is specifically tasked with regulating the practice of the nursing profession, ensuring that nurses adhere to ethical and professional standards. The Department of Health (A) focuses on public health policies, not individual professional regulation. The Professional Regulation Commission (B) oversees various professions but does not specialize in nursing. The Civil Service Commission (C) deals with civil service matters, not professional nursing regulation. Therefore, the Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing is the most appropriate choice for regulating the nursing profession.
Question 7 of 9
The patient asks Nurse Vera, when could you hear the fetal heart of my baby? Which of the following should be the BEST answer of Nurse Vera?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fifth month. Nurse Vera should explain that the fetal heart can typically be heard using a Doppler ultrasound device around the fifth month of pregnancy. This is because the baby's heart is developed enough to produce audible sounds by this time. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the ninth month, the baby is ready for delivery, in the third month the heart is still developing, and in the first month the heart is just beginning to form and is not yet audible.
Question 8 of 9
When a nurse supports the welfare of the patient in relation to health, safety and personal rights, the ethical principle followed is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: advocacy. Advocacy involves actively supporting and promoting the welfare and rights of the patient. Nurses advocate for their patients by ensuring their health, safety, and personal rights are upheld. This ethical principle goes beyond just fulfilling responsibilities or being accountable for one's actions. Responsibility (A) focuses on duties and tasks, accountability (B) is about being answerable for one's actions, and confidentiality (C) pertains to maintaining patient privacy. In this context, advocacy is the most appropriate choice as it encompasses actively working to protect and promote the best interests of the patient.
Question 9 of 9
A patient expresses concerns about the financial implications of their treatment plan. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse's role is to address the holistic needs of the patient, including financial concerns. Providing information about financial assistance programs and resources shows empathy and supports the patient in making informed decisions. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns can lead to a breakdown in trust and communication. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the patient's concerns is not addressing the patient's needs. Choice D is incorrect because financial concerns are valid and should be considered in decision-making.