ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of myocardial infarction, a respiratory rate of 16/min should be reported to the provider. Changes in respiratory rate can indicate cardiac or pulmonary issues that need further evaluation. The other vital signs provided (blood pressure, heart rate, and LDL cholesterol level) are within normal limits and do not directly relate to potential complications following a myocardial infarction.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.
Question 5 of 9
A client with thrombocytopenia is receiving care from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with thrombocytopenia, the platelet count is low, leading to a risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is related to infection control but does not address the specific risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (Choice D) is important in clients with neutropenia to prevent infections, not in thrombocytopenia.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, a side effect of methotrexate, and should be reported. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate potential complications related to methotrexate therapy.
Question 7 of 9
A client who had a colon resection and a new ascending colostomy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because avoiding popcorn and fresh pineapple helps prevent complications with an ascending colostomy. Statements A, B, and D are incorrect. Statement A is inaccurate as it takes time for bowel function to normalize after surgery. Statement B is incorrect as alcohol can be irritating to the skin; gentle soap and water are recommended for cleaning. Statement D is incorrect as bruising around the stoma is not an expected outcome of colostomy creation.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a child who has cystic fibrosis and is receiving postural drainage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a child with cystic fibrosis receiving postural drainage is to hold the hand flat to perform percussion. This technique allows for effective chest physiotherapy. Choice A is incorrect because postural drainage should be performed before meals to prevent vomiting during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators are typically administered before postural drainage to help open up the airways. Choice D is incorrect as the frequency of postural drainage may vary depending on the individual's condition, so performing it twice a day may not be appropriate for all patients.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When setting up a sterile field for a dressing change, the nurse should open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body. This action helps maintain the sterility of the field by minimizing the risk of contamination. Option A is incorrect because the cap from the solution should be placed sterile side down to prevent contamination. Option C is incorrect because the sterile dressing should be placed at least 1.25 cm away from the edge of the sterile field to maintain its sterility. Option D is incorrect because the sterile field should be set up above waist level to prevent potential contamination from reaching the field.