In a patient with painful joint swelling the following investigations are diagnostic:

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Question 1 of 5

In a patient with painful joint swelling the following investigations are diagnostic:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with painful joint swelling, the diagnostic investigation that is most likely to provide valuable information is the microscopic examination of synovial fluid, making option D the correct answer. This test allows for direct visualization of the synovial fluid, which can reveal the presence of crystals, white blood cells, and bacteria, aiding in the diagnosis of various joint conditions such as gout, septic arthritis, and inflammatory arthritis. Antinuclear antibodies (option B) are more commonly associated with autoimmune conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus and are not specific to joint swelling. C-reactive protein (option A) and serum C3 levels (option C) are markers of inflammation and complement activation, which can be elevated in a variety of conditions, including infections and systemic inflammatory diseases, but are not specific for joint swelling. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind choosing the correct diagnostic test is crucial for nursing students. By recognizing the importance of synovial fluid analysis in evaluating joint conditions, students can learn to apply this knowledge in clinical practice to assist in accurate diagnosis and treatment planning for patients presenting with joint swelling. This question reinforces the significance of selecting the most appropriate diagnostic tests based on clinical presentation and helps students develop critical thinking skills in the field of pediatric pharmacology.

Question 2 of 5

The following are suggestive of abnormal language development:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric pharmacology, understanding normal language development is crucial for assessing a child's overall health and cognitive development. In this question, option C, "Not understanding 'no' at 18 months of age," is suggestive of abnormal language development. This is because by 18 months, children should typically start to comprehend and respond to simple commands and words like "no." Option A, "Not localizing sound at 4 months of age," is more related to hearing development rather than language development. It could indicate issues with hearing rather than language processing. Option B, "No response to human words at 6 weeks," is too early in the developmental timeline to expect significant language responses. Babies at 6 weeks are usually focusing on basic sensory responses and feeding. Option D, "Does not move to music at 2 years of age," is more related to motor skills and social interaction rather than language development specifically. Educationally, understanding the milestones of language development in children is essential for healthcare providers, especially in pediatrics. Recognizing signs of abnormal language development early on can lead to timely interventions and support that can impact a child's overall cognitive and social development positively. By assessing language milestones, healthcare providers can work collaboratively with families to provide appropriate resources and referrals for further evaluation and intervention if needed.

Question 3 of 5

Toxoplasma gondii infection in humans causes:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Toxoplasma gondii infection in humans typically causes chorioretinitis. This is the correct answer because this parasitic infection commonly affects the eyes, leading to inflammation and damage in the retina and choroid. Chorioretinitis can result in blurred vision, floaters, and in severe cases, permanent vision loss if not treated promptly. The other options are incorrect because: A) Oral ulcers: Toxoplasma gondii infection does not typically present with oral ulcers. B) Cervical lymphadenopathy: While lymphadenopathy can occur in some cases of toxoplasmosis, it is not a characteristic feature of the infection. C) Microcephaly: This is a potential outcome of congenital toxoplasmosis if a pregnant woman contracts the infection, but it is not a common symptom in general toxoplasmosis infections. In an educational context, understanding the clinical manifestations of different infections, such as toxoplasmosis, is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatrics. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of various conditions helps in accurate diagnosis and timely treatment, ultimately improving patient outcomes. This question also highlights the importance of differentiating between common manifestations of a disease and less typical presentations to enhance clinical reasoning skills.

Question 4 of 5

Recognised features of myotonic dystrophy include:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of myotonic dystrophy, the recognized feature of phenomenon of anticipation is due to the genetic nature of the condition. Anticipation refers to the tendency for symptoms to manifest at an earlier age and with increasing severity in successive generations. This is a hallmark characteristic of myotonic dystrophy, specifically types 1 and 2. Muscle pain (option B) is a non-specific symptom that can be present in various conditions and is not a defining feature of myotonic dystrophy. Diplopia (option C), which is double vision, is not a common feature of myotonic dystrophy and is more commonly associated with other conditions affecting the nerves or muscles controlling eye movements. Cardiomyopathy (option D) can occur in myotonic dystrophy, but it is not a universally recognized feature and may not be present in all individuals with the condition. In an educational context, understanding the distinct clinical features of myotonic dystrophy is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatrics, to accurately diagnose and manage the condition. Recognizing the phenomenon of anticipation can aid in identifying affected individuals and providing appropriate genetic counseling. This knowledge also helps in differentiating myotonic dystrophy from other neuromuscular disorders with overlapping symptoms, leading to better patient outcomes through targeted interventions and support.

Question 5 of 5

A two-year-old child should have been immunised against:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option C) Measles. Immunization schedules for children are carefully designed to provide protection against specific diseases at certain ages based on disease prevalence, vaccine efficacy, and immune system development. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to severe complications in young children, making it crucial to vaccinate them early. Option A) Tetanus is typically included in the DTaP vaccine series, which is administered starting at 2 months of age, not specifically at 2 years old. Option B) Polio vaccination is usually given as part of the routine childhood immunization schedule but is not specifically required at 2 years old. Option D) Hepatitis A vaccination is recommended between 12-23 months, so it may have already been administered by the age of 2 years. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind age-specific immunizations is essential for healthcare providers working with pediatric populations. It ensures that children receive the necessary vaccines at the right time to protect them from preventable diseases. By grasping the timing and importance of each vaccine, nurses can effectively advocate for and administer vaccinations, contributing to public health efforts and safeguarding children's well-being.

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