ATI RN
Musculoskeletal disorder Questions
Question 1 of 5
In a patient with osteoarthritis:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Exercise and weight loss (A) reduce joint stress in osteoarthritis. NSAIDs (B) are used for pain, gold therapy (C) is for rheumatoid arthritis not osteoarthritis, bisphosphonates (D) treat osteoporosis not worsening OA, and raloxifene (E) has no proven effect on OA progression.
Question 2 of 5
A young adolescent reports chest pain associated with coughing and lifting. Physical examination reveals tenderness over several ribs, radiating to the back. Auscultation of the heart, lungs, and abdomen are normal. There is no history of injury. What will the PNP do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms suggest costochondritis, a common benign condition in adolescents with no trauma history and normal auscultation. Ibuprofen, stretching, and ice (D) are appropriate initial management. EKG (A) and x-ray (B) are unnecessary without cardiac or pulmonary signs, and referral (C) is premature.
Question 3 of 5
What clinical sign will the PNP elicit when assessing a child with a Grade II ankle sprain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A Grade II ankle sprain involves partial ligament tearing, leading to moderate pain, swelling, tenderness, and ecchymosis (A). Mild symptoms (B) suggest Grade I, severe symptoms with ecchymosis (C) suggest Grade III, and deformity (D) indicates a fracture or severe sprain.
Question 4 of 5
Ben is an 11-year-old soccer player and presents in the clinic with pain and swelling in both knees. A physical examination reveals swelling and focal tenderness at the tibial tuberosities, with pain worsening when asked to extend the knees against resistance. What is the treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This presentation is consistent with Osgood-Schlatter disease, a common overuse injury in active children. Ice and activity restriction (C) are the mainstay of treatment. Radiographs (A) and referral (B) are unnecessary unless symptoms persist or worsen, and stretching (D) may exacerbate pain initially.
Question 5 of 5
An overweight adolescent boy complains of pain in his hip that radiates to the medial aspect of his knee. He denies trauma and has not had a fever. You note upon exam that he is walking with a limp. The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) (A) is common in overweight adolescents, presenting with hip pain radiating to the knee and a limp, without trauma or fever. Transient synovitis (B) is more common in younger children, Legg-Calve-Perthes (C) typically affects younger kids, and septic arthritis (D) usually involves fever.