ATI RN
microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a compound light microscope the lens closest to the eye is the __________ lens.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ocular lens. The ocular lens is the lens closest to the eye in a compound light microscope. This lens is responsible for magnifying the image produced by the objective lens. It typically has a magnification power of 10x. The objective lens, choice B, is positioned closer to the specimen and provides the primary magnification of the image. The condenser, choice C, is located beneath the stage and helps focus light onto the specimen. The stage, choice D, is where the specimen is placed for observation. Therefore, the ocular lens is the correct choice as it is the lens closest to the eye and responsible for further magnifying the image.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following bacteria are capable of surviving in both aerobic and anaerobic environments?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments. In aerobic conditions, they use oxygen for energy production, while in anaerobic conditions, they can switch to fermentation or anaerobic respiration. A: Obligate aerobes require oxygen to survive and cannot survive in anaerobic environments. C: Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and only thrive in anaerobic conditions. D: Microaerophiles require low levels of oxygen to survive and cannot thrive in fully aerobic or anaerobic conditions.
Question 3 of 9
Examination of a child revealed some whitish spots looking like coagulated milk on the mucous membrane of his cheeks and tongue. Analysis of smears revealed gram-positive oval yeast-like cells. What causative agents are they?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida. The whitish spots resembling coagulated milk on the mucous membranes are characteristic of oral thrush, a condition caused by Candida species. Candida is a gram-positive oval yeast-like fungus commonly found in the oral cavity. Staphylococci (B) are gram-positive cocci, not yeast-like cells. Diphtheria bacillus (C) causes diphtheria, not oral thrush. Actinomycetes (D) are filamentous bacteria, not yeast-like cells typically seen in oral thrush. Therefore, A is the correct answer based on the clinical presentation and microscopic findings.
Question 4 of 9
... structure of bacteria are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cytoplasmic membrane - essential. The cytoplasmic membrane is a crucial structure in bacteria as it regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, provides structural support, and is essential for maintaining cell integrity. Without a functional cytoplasmic membrane, bacteria would not be able to survive. A: Nucleus is incorrect because bacteria do not have a true nucleus. B: Capsule - non-essential is incorrect because while the capsule provides protection and helps in adherence, it is not essential for bacterial survival. C: Mitochondria is incorrect because bacteria do not have mitochondria; they generate energy through other mechanisms. In summary, the cytoplasmic membrane is essential for bacterial survival, making it the correct choice among the options provided.
Question 5 of 9
There is a suspicion of active tuberculosis development in patient. The doctor has appointed Mantoux test to make a diagnosis. What immunobiological agent has to be administered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculine. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin. This test helps determine if a person has been exposed to the bacteria that cause TB. Administering tuberculin is crucial for the Mantoux test as it triggers a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in individuals previously exposed to TB. Choice B (BCG vaccine) is incorrect because BCG does not interfere with the Mantoux test results. Choice C (DPT vaccine) is incorrect as it is used for immunization against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, not for diagnosing TB. Choice D (Tularin test) is incorrect as it is not a recognized immunobiological agent for TB diagnosis.
Question 6 of 9
Urinalysis of a patient with acute cystitis shows leukocytes and a large number of gram-negative bacilli. Inoculation has resulted in the growth of mucous colonies that produce a green soluble pigment. What microorganism is the most likely cause of the patient's disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common cause of acute cystitis. It typically presents with leukocytes and gram-negative bacilli in the urine. The green pigment production indicates pyocyanin, which is a characteristic of E. coli. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (A) can also produce green pigment, but it is less common in urinary tract infections. Proteus mirabilis (B) is associated with a swarming motility pattern on agar, not mucous colonies. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is associated with pneumonia and other respiratory infections, not cystitis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with diarrhea had a stool sample that revealed Gram-negative rods that fermented lactose. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-negative rods: E. coli is a Gram-negative rod bacterium. 2. Fermented lactose: E. coli is known to ferment lactose. 3. Common cause of diarrhea: E. coli is a common causative agent of infectious diarrhea. Summary: B: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not typically associated with lactose fermentation. C: Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not known for lactose fermentation. D: Proteus vulgaris is not a common cause of infectious diarrhea and does not typically ferment lactose.
Question 8 of 9
A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice, muscle aching, chill, nose bleedings. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed darkfield microscopy of the patient's blood drop. Name a causative agent of this disease:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira interrogans. Darkfield microscopy is used to visualize spirochetes, which are spiral-shaped bacteria. Leptospira is a spirochete bacterium that causes leptospirosis, which presents with jaundice, muscle aching, chill, and nosebleeds. Leptospira is commonly transmitted through contact with contaminated water or soil. B: Borrelia dutlonii causes Lyme disease, which is transmitted by ticks and does not typically present with jaundice or nosebleeds. C: Calymmatobacterium granulomatis causes granuloma inguinale, a sexually transmitted infection that does not present with the symptoms described. D: Bartonella bacilloformis causes Carrion's disease, which presents with fever, anemia, and skin lesions but not jaundice or nosebleeds.
Question 9 of 9
Tularemia is most often a:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zoonosis. Tularemia is primarily a zoonotic disease, meaning it is transmitted from animals to humans. The bacterium that causes tularemia, Francisella tularensis, commonly infects animals like rabbits, rodents, and ticks, which serve as reservoir hosts. Humans can get infected through direct contact with infected animals, insect bites, or contaminated water or soil. This zoonotic nature of tularemia distinguishes it from anthroponosis (A), which is transmitted only between humans, and sapronosis (C), which is transmitted through non-living environmental sources. Choice D is incorrect because there is a correct answer, which is zoonosis.