ATI RN
microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a compound light microscope the lens closest to the eye is the __________ lens.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ocular lens. The ocular lens is the lens closest to the eye in a compound light microscope. This lens is responsible for magnifying the image produced by the objective lens. It typically has a magnification power of 10x. The objective lens, choice B, is positioned closer to the specimen and provides the primary magnification of the image. The condenser, choice C, is located beneath the stage and helps focus light onto the specimen. The stage, choice D, is where the specimen is placed for observation. Therefore, the ocular lens is the correct choice as it is the lens closest to the eye and responsible for further magnifying the image.
Question 2 of 9
Which one of the following growth media is used to cultivate Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lowestein-Jensen. This is because Lowestein-Jensen medium is specifically designed to cultivate Mycobacterium tuberculosis, providing necessary nutrients and conditions for its growth. Loefller's medium is not optimal for cultivating M. tuberculosis. Choice C (All of the above) is incorrect as not all the options listed are suitable for cultivating M. tuberculosis. Choice D (None of the above) is also incorrect as Lowestein-Jensen is indeed the recommended growth medium for this bacterium.
Question 3 of 9
A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends surrounded by capsules. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends indicate Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Presence of capsules supports the likelihood of S. pneumoniae. 3. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae is Gram-negative and does not form diplococci. 5. Neisseria meningitidis typically causes meningitis, not pneumonia. 6. Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive but does not typically present as diplococci in pneumonia cases.
Question 4 of 9
Measures that can be taken to prevent bacterial vaginitis include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because bacterial vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in the vaginal flora, which can be disrupted by frequent douching (eliminating beneficial bacteria), tight clothing (restricting airflow), and non-breathable underwear. Avoiding tight pants and using cotton underwear allow for better ventilation, promoting a healthy vaginal environment. Infrequent douching helps maintain the natural balance of bacteria in the vagina. Choices A and B are incorrect because they recommend practices that can disrupt the vaginal flora and increase the risk of bacterial vaginitis. Choice C is partially correct but lacks the emphasis on avoiding frequent douching, which is crucial in preventing bacterial vaginitis.
Question 5 of 9
What means significant bacteriuria:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because significant bacteriuria is defined as having more than 10^5 cells in 1 ml of midstream morning urine. This concentration indicates a true infection rather than contamination. Choice B is incorrect because the amount of urine does not determine significant bacteriuria. Choice C is incorrect because even a single bacterium in urine does not necessarily indicate an infection. Choice D is incorrect because not all statements are correct; only choice A accurately defines significant bacteriuria based on the bacterial concentration in urine samples.
Question 6 of 9
Which is not part of the normal skin microflora
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: serratia spp. This is because serratia spp. are not typically found in the normal skin microflora. Normal skin microflora primarily consist of bacteria such as diphtheroids, alpha-hemolytic streptococci, and epidermidis. Serratia spp. are more commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections rather than being a part of the skin's natural bacterial flora. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are commonly found in the normal skin microflora.
Question 7 of 9
A puncture sample has been taken from the inguinal lymph nodes of a patient provisionally diagnosed with plague. The sample was inoculated into a hard nutrient medium. What shape will the colonies have, if the diagnosis is confirmed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shagreen leather. Yersinia pestis, the bacterium causing plague, forms colonies resembling shagreen leather on a hard nutrient medium due to its distinctive morphology. This morphology includes a rough, irregular, and raised appearance, similar to the texture of shagreen leather. A: Dewdrops - Incorrect. Dewdrops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. C: Lace handkerchief - Incorrect. Lace handkerchief does not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. D: Mercury drops - Incorrect. Mercury drops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis.
Question 8 of 9
The major morphological form of the bacteria are:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately describes the major morphological forms of bacteria. Cocci are spherical, rod-shaped bacteria are called bacilli, and curved bacteria are spirilla. Staphylococci, streptococci, and diplococci are specific types of cocci, not major morphological forms. Basicili and spiralis are not common morphological forms of bacteria. Option D is incorrect as the other choices do represent major morphological forms of bacteria.
Question 9 of 9
There is a suspicion of active tuberculosis development in patient. The doctor has appointed Mantoux test to make a diagnosis. What immunobiological agent has to be administered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculine. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin. This test helps determine if a person has been exposed to the bacteria that cause TB. Administering tuberculin is crucial for the Mantoux test as it triggers a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in individuals previously exposed to TB. Choice B (BCG vaccine) is incorrect because BCG does not interfere with the Mantoux test results. Choice C (DPT vaccine) is incorrect as it is used for immunization against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, not for diagnosing TB. Choice D (Tularin test) is incorrect as it is not a recognized immunobiological agent for TB diagnosis.