ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, CD4+ levels are measured to determine the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are a type of white blood cell crucial for immune function. 2. HIV targets and destroys CD4+ cells, leading to immune system damage. 3. Measuring CD4+ levels helps determine the extent of this damage. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Summary: A: Presence of opportunistic infections - CD4+ levels indirectly affect susceptibility, but not measured for this purpose. C: Level of the viral load - Measured separately from CD4+ levels. D: Resistance to antigens - CD4+ levels do not directly indicate resistance.
Question 2 of 9
What instruction should the nurse give to then patient taking propan0lol (Inderal) for hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not stop medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping propranolol can lead to rebound hypertension and potentially life-threatening complications. The nurse should emphasize the importance of gradual tapering under medical supervision to avoid adverse effects. A: Having potassium levels checked is not directly related to propranolol use for hypertension management. C: Changes in appetite are not specific to propranolol use and may not be a significant concern compared to abrupt cessation of the medication. D: Resuming usual daily activities is important but not as crucial as the correct instruction to avoid abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fine needle aspiration. This is because fine needle aspiration involves extracting cells from the lump in the breast for examination under a microscope to determine if they are cancerous. This procedure provides a definitive diagnosis of breast cancer. Breast self-examination (A) is a screening tool for detecting lumps but does not confirm a diagnosis. Mammography (C) is used for screening and detecting abnormalities but requires further testing for confirmation. Chest x-ray (D) is not useful for diagnosing breast cancer.
Question 4 of 9
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement (Choice C). This is important because the patient may not accurately express their pain level verbally. By addressing the discrepancy between the patient's verbal report and non-verbal cues, the nurse can gather more information to assess the patient's pain accurately. By directly communicating with the patient, the nurse can ensure that the appropriate interventions are provided. Choice A is incorrect because it disregards the need to address the patient's pain assessment. Choice B assumes the patient's preference without further clarification. Choice D jumps to administering pain medication without fully assessing the situation, which could lead to inappropriate treatment.
Question 5 of 9
For a client diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which nursing intervention is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administering platelets, as ordered to maintain an adequate platelet count. In ITP, the client has low platelet count leading to risk of bleeding. Administering platelets helps raise platelet levels and prevent bleeding complications. Teaching coughing and deep-breathing techniques (A) is important for preventing respiratory infections but not directly related to ITP. Giving aspirin (C) is contraindicated as it can further decrease platelet count. Administering stool softeners (D) is important for preventing straining but not specific to managing ITP.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has reduced muscle strength following a left-sided stroke and is at risk for falling. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nursing diagnostic statement Risk for falls?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. This intervention is appropriate because it addresses the patient's reduced muscle strength following a left-sided stroke and the risk for falling. Assisting the patient into and out of bed regularly helps prevent falls by ensuring safe mobility and reducing the likelihood of accidents. It promotes independence while also providing necessary support. A: Keeping all side rails down at all times may increase the risk of falls as it removes a safety measure that can help prevent falls. B: Encouraging the patient to remain in bed most of the shift can lead to deconditioning and muscle weakness, increasing the risk of falls. C: Placing the patient in a room away from the nurses' station does not directly address the risk for falls and may hinder timely assistance in case of emergencies. In summary, option D is the most appropriate intervention as it addresses the patient's needs, promotes safety, and supports mobility to prevent falls effectively.
Question 7 of 9
A client has had heavy menstrual bleeding for 6 months. Her gynecologist diagnoses microcytic hypochromic anemia and prescribes ferrous sulfate (Feosol), 300mg PO daily. Before initiating iron therapy, the nurse reviews the client’s medical history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of ferrous sulfate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ulcerative colitis. Iron therapy can exacerbate gastrointestinal issues, including ulcerative colitis due to its potential to cause irritation and inflammation in the digestive tract. This can lead to worsening symptoms and complications for the client. A: Pregnancy is not a contraindication for iron therapy; in fact, it is commonly prescribed during pregnancy to prevent or treat anemia. C: Asthma is not a contraindication for iron therapy as it does not directly interact with asthma or its treatment. D: Severely impaired liver function is not a direct contraindication for iron therapy, although caution may be needed in such cases due to iron metabolism being affected by liver function.
Question 8 of 9
The physician orders local application of epinephrine 1:1000 solution to treat a nosebleed. The patient asks how this will help. Which of the ff. responses by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Epinephrine, when applied locally, constricts blood vessels, reducing blood flow and slowing down bleeding. This vasoconstrictive effect helps control nosebleeds effectively. Choice A is incorrect because although epinephrine can raise blood pressure, it is not the primary mechanism for treating nosebleeds. Choice B is incorrect as epinephrine's bronchodilation effect is not relevant in this context. Choice C is incorrect as while promoting blood clotting is beneficial, epinephrine primarily acts by vasoconstriction to control bleeding.
Question 9 of 9
To treat cervical cancer, a client has had an applicator of radioactive material placed in the vagina. Which observation by the nurse indicates a radiation hazard?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because maintaining the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle can cause the radioactive material to shift within the client's body, increasing the risk of radiation exposure. This position should be avoided to prevent displacement of the applicator. A: Strict bed rest is appropriate to minimize movement and dislodgement of the applicator, ensuring proper treatment delivery. C: Providing a bed bath does not pose a radiation hazard as long as proper precautions are taken. D: Checking the applicator's position every 4 hours is essential for monitoring and ensuring it remains in place to deliver the intended treatment.