In a client receiving opiate therapy, which of the following should the nurse closely monitor for in order to minimize the risk for imbalanced nutrition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a client receiving opiate therapy, monitoring for anorexia and nausea is crucial to minimizing the risk for imbalanced nutrition. Opiates can often cause gastrointestinal side effects, such as decreased appetite and nausea, leading to inadequate food intake and potential malnutrition. By closely monitoring for these symptoms, the nurse can intervene early by providing nutritional support or adjusting the medication regimen to prevent nutritional imbalances. Option A, diarrhea, is less likely to contribute to imbalanced nutrition in this scenario, as it may lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances rather than directly affecting food intake. Option C, GI tract infection, is a separate issue that would require specific interventions but is not directly related to imbalanced nutrition caused by opiate therapy. Option D, gastric ulcer, is also a different concern that may result from factors like stress or infection, rather than the anorexia and nausea associated with opiate therapy. Educationally, understanding the effects of opiates on the gastrointestinal system and their potential impact on nutrition is essential for nurses caring for patients on these medications. By recognizing the signs of imbalanced nutrition early on and implementing appropriate interventions, nurses can help promote optimal patient outcomes and well-being.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Prions. Prions are infectious agents composed of abnormal proteins that can cause neurodegenerative diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) in humans. Eating contaminated meat, particularly from animals with prion diseases like bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) in Europe, can result in exposure to prions. Option A) Fungi, Option B) Bacteria, and Option C) Protozoa are incorrect in this context. Fungi are eukaryotic organisms, bacteria are prokaryotes, and protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. None of these can cause diseases similar to prion diseases through meat consumption. This question highlights the importance of understanding different infectious agents and their modes of transmission. Educating healthcare professionals on prion diseases is crucial for recognizing and managing potential cases, especially in regions where these diseases are prevalent. Understanding the unique characteristics of prions helps in preventing and controlling their spread, contributing to better patient care and public health.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and medical-surgical nursing, understanding blood types and transfusions is crucial for patient care. The correct answer is option C) O because individuals with type O blood are considered universal donors. This means that their blood can be transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an adverse reaction. Option A) B and option B) A are incorrect because they are not universal donors. Blood type B can donate to individuals with B and AB blood types, while blood type A can donate to individuals with A and AB blood types. Option D) AB is also incorrect in this scenario because individuals with AB blood type are considered universal recipients, meaning they can receive blood from any blood type without adverse reactions. Understanding blood compatibility is essential in nursing practice to prevent transfusion reactions and ensure patient safety. Knowing the characteristics of each blood type helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions regarding blood transfusions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and medical surgical nursing, closely monitoring older adults receiving IV therapy is crucial due to their increased susceptibility to fluid overload. The correct answer, option B, highlights this important point. Older adults often experience age-related physiological changes that can impact their ability to regulate fluid balance effectively. As individuals age, their renal function may decline, leading to decreased efficiency in filtering and excreting fluids. This diminished renal function can predispose older adults to fluid retention and potential overload when receiving IV therapy, making close monitoring essential to prevent complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. Option A, stating that older adults have less efficient defense mechanisms, while true to some extent due to age-related immune system changes, is not directly related to the need for monitoring during IV therapy. Option C, mentioning increased renal efficiency, is inaccurate as aging typically leads to decreased, rather than increased, renal efficiency. Option D, inadequate intake of dietary fiber, is irrelevant to the specific issue of fluid overload during IV therapy in older adults. Educationally, understanding the unique physiological changes in older adults is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care. By recognizing the increased risk of fluid overload in this population, nurses can implement appropriate monitoring strategies and interventions to ensure optimal outcomes when administering IV therapy to older adults.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and preoperative care, the correct answer is C) Anticholinergics. Anticholinergics such as Atropine are used preoperatively to reduce respiratory tract secretions, dry mucous membranes, and inhibit vagal stimulation. By blocking the action of acetylcholine, anticholinergics decrease the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to these effects. This helps in preventing complications during anesthesia induction and maintaining a clear airway. Option A) Histamine z-receptor antagonists are not typically used for preoperative purposes related to respiratory secretions or vagal stimulation. These drugs primarily target histamine receptors and are commonly used for conditions like allergies or gastric issues. Option B) Antianxiety drugs do not directly affect respiratory secretions or vagal stimulation. While they may help with anxiety management preoperatively, they do not have the specific effects mentioned in the question. Option D) Sedatives may help with calming a patient before surgery but do not have the specific effects on respiratory secretions and vagal stimulation that anticholinergics provide. Sedatives primarily work on the central nervous system to induce relaxation and reduce anxiety. Understanding the effects of different preoperative medications is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes during surgical procedures. Anticholinergics play a specific role in managing respiratory secretions and vagal stimulation in the preoperative period, making them a key medication in this context.