In a child with scabies, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a child with scabies, the most appropriate treatment is Permethrin. Permethrin is a topical medication that effectively kills the scabies mites and their eggs, which helps to eliminate the infestation. It is considered safe and effective for use in children, making it a suitable choice for pediatric patients. Benzoyl peroxide is not the correct treatment for scabies. Benzoyl peroxide is commonly used to treat acne by reducing the bacteria on the skin and drying out excess oils. It is not effective against scabies mites. Hydrocortisone is a topical steroid that helps to reduce inflammation and itching associated with various skin conditions like eczema or allergic reactions. While it can provide symptomatic relief for scabies-related itching, it does not treat the underlying infestation. Calamine lotion is a soothing topical medication commonly used to relieve itching and irritation from conditions like poison ivy or insect bites. It does not kill scabies mites or treat the infestation itself. Educationally, understanding the appropriate treatment for scabies in pediatric patients is crucial for nursing professionals working with children. It is essential to be aware of the appropriate medications to effectively manage and treat skin conditions like scabies in pediatric populations to promote optimal health outcomes and patient comfort.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric pharmacology, understanding genetic transmission patterns is crucial in diagnosing and managing various cardiovascular disorders. In this case, the correct answer is D) Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. HHT is a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal blood vessel formation which can lead to recurrent nosebleeds, skin discoloration, and potentially life-threatening complications. Regarding the other options: A) Congenital spherocytosis is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, not transmitted. B) Vitamin D-resistant rickets is a genetic disorder but is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. C) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is also inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, not autosomal dominant. Understanding the mode of inheritance in pediatric cardiovascular disorders is essential for providing appropriate care and genetic counseling to patients and their families. Recognizing the genetic basis of diseases can help healthcare providers tailor treatment plans, anticipate complications, and offer appropriate genetic testing and counseling. This knowledge enhances the quality of care and empowers families to make informed decisions about their health.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric patients with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM), it is crucial to understand the unique considerations for managing their condition. Option A, stating that microangiopathic changes are rare before puberty, is correct. This is because microangiopathic complications like retinopathy and nephropathy typically develop after puberty and longer duration of diabetes. Option B is incorrect as Isophane (NPH) insulin is intermediate-acting, not shorter acting than soluble (Regular) insulin. Option C is also incorrect as lipoatrophy (loss of fat under the skin) is more common than lipohypertrophy (accumulation of fat under the skin) in pediatric patients due to the frequent rotation of injection sites. Option D is incorrect because fructosamine is not commonly used for monitoring glucose control in children with diabetes. Instead, hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is the preferred method for assessing long-term glucose control. Educationally, understanding these nuances is essential for pediatric nurses caring for children with IDDM. Providing accurate information ensures safe and effective management of the condition, preventing complications and promoting optimal health outcomes in pediatric patients with diabetes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric cardiovascular disorders, cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, indicates the presence of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood. In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Right to left shunt. A right-to-left shunt allows deoxygenated blood to bypass the lungs and enter the systemic circulation directly, leading to systemic hypoxemia despite the administration of high oxygen concentrations. This results in cyanosis even in the presence of 60% oxygen. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Haemoglobin concentration < 5 g%: While low hemoglobin levels can lead to hypoxemia, they do not specifically cause cyanosis in the presence of 60% oxygen. B) Methaemoglobinaemia: Methemoglobinemia is a condition where hemoglobin is oxidized and unable to bind oxygen effectively. While it can cause cyanosis, it does not directly lead to cyanosis in the presence of 60% oxygen. C) Thalassaemia: Thalassemia is a genetic blood disorder affecting hemoglobin production. While severe forms can lead to anemia and hypoxemia, they do not directly cause cyanosis in the presence of 60% oxygen. Educational Context: Understanding the causes of cyanosis is crucial in pediatric nursing, especially in the context of cardiovascular disorders. Recognizing the specific etiology of cyanosis helps nurses and clinicians provide prompt and appropriate interventions to improve oxygenation and prevent complications. Knowledge of conditions like right-to-left shunts is vital for accurate assessment and management of pediatric patients with cyanosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric pharmacology, understanding the role of viruses in cardiovascular disorders is crucial for nursing practice. Coxsackie viruses, specifically Coxsackie virus type A, are known to be implicated in various conditions, with herpangina being one of them. The correct answer is A) Herpangina because Coxsackie viruses are a common cause of this condition, which presents with fever, sore throat, and painful mouth sores in children. Understanding this association is important for identifying and managing cases of herpangina effectively. Option B) Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition associated with celiac disease and is not caused by Coxsackie viruses. Option C) Meningitis can be caused by various pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, but Coxsackie viruses are not a common cause of viral meningitis. Option D) Orchitis is inflammation of the testicles, commonly caused by viral infections like mumps virus, but not typically associated with Coxsackie viruses. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of differentiating between various viral etiologies in pediatric patients. Understanding the specific viruses involved in different clinical conditions helps nurses provide appropriate care, including supportive management, infection control measures, and patient education. This knowledge contributes to improved patient outcomes and ensures comprehensive nursing practice in pediatric cardiovascular disorders.