ATI RN
Safety Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
In a 40-year-old man with hypertension, which of the following agents has the greatest potential to activate presynaptic autoreceptors, inhibit norepinephrine release, and decrease sympathetic outflow?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: α₂-Adrenergic agonists (B), like clonidine, activate presynaptic α₂ receptors, inhibiting norepinephrine release and reducing sympathetic outflow, thus lowering blood pressure. α₁ agonists increase vasoconstriction, β₂ antagonists block vasodilation (irrelevant here), ACE inhibitors block angiotensin II formation, and calcium antagonists (E) relax vessels—none directly target presynaptic autoreceptors or norepinephrine release like α₂ agonists.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who is taking OTC proton pump inhibitors was recently placed on an oral antifungal for a fungal infection. After a week, the patient reported that the fungal infection has not improved. Which antifungal medication was the patient taking?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Intraconazole. Proton pump inhibitors increase gastric pH, affecting the absorption of drugs requiring an acidic environment for absorption, like intraconazole. Fluconazole (A) is not affected by gastric pH. Caspofungin (B) is not orally absorbed. Amphotericin B (D) is not affected by gastric pH but is not commonly used orally.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is not a required element of the written prescription?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disease state being treated. This is because the written prescription should include essential information such as the drug name, strength, dosage form, quantity to be dispensed, directions for use, patient information, prescriber information, and date. The disease state being treated is not a required element as it is typically part of the diagnosis and treatment plan discussed between the healthcare provider and the patient, but not necessarily explicitly stated on the prescription. The other choices, A, B, and D, are required elements of a written prescription. Quantity of a drug to be dispensed ensures proper dosing, number of refills indicates how many times the prescription can be refilled, and route of administration specifies how the medication should be administered. These elements are crucial for the pharmacist to accurately dispense and the patient to safely use the medication.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with peptic ulcer disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Antibiotics (amoxicillin and clarithromycin). Peptic ulcer disease is often caused by Helicobacter pylori infection, which can be effectively treated with antibiotics such as amoxicillin and clarithromycin. Opioids (A) can lead to constipation but are not directly associated with peptic ulcers. Corticosteroids (B) can worsen peptic ulcer disease by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. Hormonal therapy (D) is not typically associated with peptic ulcers. Antibiotics directly target the underlying cause of peptic ulcers, making them the most appropriate treatment strategy.
Question 5 of 5
What is the term for the study of the way drugs influence the body?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pharmacology. Pharmacology is the study of how drugs interact with the body to produce a specific effect. It encompasses the study of drug actions, mechanisms, and therapeutic uses. Pharmacotherapeutics (A) focuses on the use of drugs to treat diseases. Pharmacokinetics (C) is the study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion in the body. Pharmacodynamics (D) is the study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs on the body. Therefore, pharmacology is the most appropriate term for the study of how drugs influence the body as it encompasses all aspects of drug action.