Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: menstrual flow. In a 28-year-old female with Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol levels can disrupt the menstrual cycle, leading to irregular or absent periods. Successful treatment for Cushing syndrome aims to restore normal cortisol levels, which should result in the resumption of regular menstrual flow. This indicates that the hormonal balance is improving. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Serum glucose level - While Cushing syndrome can lead to hyperglycemia, successful treatment would aim to normalize glucose levels, not cause a decline. B: Bone mineralization - Cushing syndrome can cause osteoporosis due to loss of bone density, but successful treatment would help prevent further bone loss rather than decline. C: Hair loss - Cushing syndrome can cause hair loss, but successful treatment would not necessarily lead to a decline in hair loss as it may take time for hair to regrow. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the restoration of hormonal

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: anorexia. In the early stage of hepatic inflammatory disorder, anorexia is the most likely symptom/sign. This is because hepatic inflammation can lead to a decrease in appetite, resulting in anorexia. Dark urine (A) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction but typically occurs later in the disease process. Occult blood in stools (B) is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than early hepatic inflammation. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a later manifestation of liver disease. Therefore, anorexia is the most likely symptom in the early stages of hepatic inflammatory disorder.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma leads to excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production. 2. High corticotropin levels would be expected due to the adenoma's overproduction. 3. The high cortisol levels occur as a result of increased ACTH stimulating cortisol release from the adrenal glands. 4. Therefore, choice B (high corticotropin and high cortisol levels) is the correct answer. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because low cortisol levels would not be expected in a client with a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma. - Choice C is incorrect because low corticotropin levels would not align with the excessive ACTH production from the adenoma. - Choice D is incorrect as both low corticotropin and low cortisol levels would not be consistent with the pathophysiology of a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: An above-normal anti-deoxyribonucleic acid. In SLE, the body produces antibodies against its own DNA, leading to the presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies. Elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibodies are specific to SLE, confirming the diagnosis. A: Increased total serum complement levels are seen in SLE due to complement activation but are not specific to SLE. C: Negative antinuclear antibody test is not consistent with SLE, as ANA positivity is common in SLE. D: Negative lupus erythematosus cell test is not specific to SLE as lupus erythematosus cells are not always present.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: once a month after menstruation. Performing BSE at this time helps ensure consistent examination when breasts are less tender or swollen, making it easier to detect abnormalities. Performing it once a month ensures regular monitoring for any changes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the recommended frequency or timing for an effective BSE. BSE should be done monthly after menstruation to increase the chances of early detection of breast cancer.