ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a 28-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing syndrome, the nurse would expect a decline in:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: menstrual flow. In a 28-year-old female with Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol levels can disrupt the menstrual cycle, leading to irregular or absent periods. Successful treatment for Cushing syndrome aims to restore normal cortisol levels, which should result in the resumption of regular menstrual flow. This indicates that the hormonal balance is improving. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Serum glucose level - While Cushing syndrome can lead to hyperglycemia, successful treatment would aim to normalize glucose levels, not cause a decline. B: Bone mineralization - Cushing syndrome can cause osteoporosis due to loss of bone density, but successful treatment would help prevent further bone loss rather than decline. C: Hair loss - Cushing syndrome can cause hair loss, but successful treatment would not necessarily lead to a decline in hair loss as it may take time for hair to regrow. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the restoration of hormonal
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following explanations by the nurse will help a patient understand what to expect during a bronchoscopy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately describes the procedure of bronchoscopy. The nurse's explanation should focus on the insertion of a small tube through the nose or mouth into the bronchi to visualize the airways. This information helps the patient understand the basic process and what to expect during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as bronchoscopy does not involve breathing a radioactive substance to show diseased areas in the lungs. Choice C is also incorrect as there is no requirement to drink a thick white liquid for bronchoscopy. Choice D is incorrect as dye injection is not a standard part of bronchoscopy, and asking about allergies to dye is irrelevant in this context.
Question 3 of 9
Nurses identifying outcomes and related nursing interventions must refer to the standards and agency policies for setting priorities, identifying and recording expected client outcomes, selecting evidence-based nursing interventions, and recording the plan of care. Which of the following are recognized standards?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (State Nurse Practice Acts) Rationale: State Nurse Practice Acts outline the legal scope of nursing practice, including standards for setting priorities, identifying client outcomes, and selecting evidence-based nursing interventions. These laws are specific to nursing practice, ensuring that nurses follow guidelines tailored to their profession. Nurses must adhere to these standards to provide safe and effective care. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Professional physicians' organizations - While physicians' organizations may provide guidelines for medical practice, they do not set standards specific to nursing practice. C: The Joint Commission - The Joint Commission focuses on accreditation for healthcare organizations, not setting standards for nursing practice. D: The Agency for Health Care Research and Quality - AHRQ conducts research and provides evidence-based information but does not establish standards for nursing practice.
Question 4 of 9
A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: anorexia. In the early stage of hepatic inflammatory disorder, anorexia is the most likely symptom/sign. This is because hepatic inflammation can lead to a decrease in appetite, resulting in anorexia. Dark urine (A) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction but typically occurs later in the disease process. Occult blood in stools (B) is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than early hepatic inflammation. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a later manifestation of liver disease. Therefore, anorexia is the most likely symptom in the early stages of hepatic inflammatory disorder.
Question 5 of 9
A client is undergoing test for multiple myeloma. Diagnostic study findings in multiple Myeloma includes:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bence jones protein in the urine. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells produce excess monoclonal immunoglobulins, including Bence Jones proteins, which can be detected in the urine. This is a hallmark finding in multiple myeloma diagnosis. A: Incorrect. Serum creatinine levels are typically not affected in multiple myeloma. C: Incorrect. Hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, is commonly seen in multiple myeloma due to bone destruction. D: Incorrect. Multiple myeloma often presents with high serum protein levels, not low levels.
Question 6 of 9
A seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and tonic spasms of the trunk and extremities rapidly followed by repetitive generalized clonic jerking is classified as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Generalized seizure. This type of seizure involves both hemispheres of the brain from the onset, leading to loss of consciousness and tonic-clonic jerking. It is characterized by widespread, synchronized electrical discharges. A: Focal seizures start in one area of the brain, leading to localized symptoms without loss of consciousness. B: Jacksonian seizures are a type of focal seizure characterized by a progression of jerking movements from one body part to another. D: Partial seizures involve only one part of the brain, leading to localized symptoms or altered consciousness without loss of awareness.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff factors makes it important for the nurse to provide special care to older clients with an immune system disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related changes. Older clients are more susceptible to immune system disorders due to age-related changes such as a weakened immune response, increased inflammation, and decreased production of immune cells. Providing special care is important to address these specific vulnerabilities. Incorrect choices: B: Use of multiple drugs (Polypharmacy) - While polypharmacy can impact the immune system, it is not the primary factor for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders. C: Poor diet - While diet plays a role in overall health, it is not the main factor necessitating special care for older clients with immune system disorders. D: Reduced activity levels - Although physical activity is important for overall health, reduced activity levels are not the primary reason for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is working in a support group for client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because following safer-sex practices is crucial in preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. By emphasizing this point, the nurse can educate clients on reducing the risk of transmission. Safer-sex practices include using condoms and practicing monogamy. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding recreational drugs and alcohol, while important for overall health, is not directly related to preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for individuals to inform their sexual partners about their HIV status to prevent transmission and ensure informed consent. Choice D is incorrect because while it may be required by law in some places, it is not the most crucial point for preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS within a support group setting.
Question 9 of 9
The client is suspected of having myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium (Tensilon) 2 mg is administered intravenously to determine the diagnosis. Which of the following indicates that the client has myasthenia gravis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, the administration of edrophonium will temporarily improve muscle strength due to increased availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This improvement should be noted within 30 to 60 seconds after the administration of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because joint pain is not a typical response to edrophonium in the context of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect because feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and flushing are more indicative of a cholinergic crisis, which occurs when too much edrophonium is administered. Choice D is incorrect because an increase in muscle strength post-edrophonium administration would not be expected in a client with myasthenia gravis.