In a 28-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing syndrome, the nurse would expect a decline in:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: menstrual flow. In a 28-year-old female with Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol levels can disrupt the menstrual cycle, leading to irregular or absent periods. Successful treatment for Cushing syndrome aims to restore normal cortisol levels, which should result in the resumption of regular menstrual flow. This indicates that the hormonal balance is improving. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Serum glucose level - While Cushing syndrome can lead to hyperglycemia, successful treatment would aim to normalize glucose levels, not cause a decline. B: Bone mineralization - Cushing syndrome can cause osteoporosis due to loss of bone density, but successful treatment would help prevent further bone loss rather than decline. C: Hair loss - Cushing syndrome can cause hair loss, but successful treatment would not necessarily lead to a decline in hair loss as it may take time for hair to regrow. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the restoration of hormonal

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that presents with a triad of symptoms: abnormal involuntary movements (chorea), intellectual decline, and emotional disturbances. Chorea is a hallmark feature of Huntington's disease, caused by damage to the basal ganglia. Intellectual decline includes cognitive impairments such as memory loss and executive dysfunction. Emotional disturbances involve mood swings, irritability, and apathy. Therefore, all three manifestations are commonly seen in individuals with Huntington's disease, making D the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the key clinical features of Huntington's disease.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a nursing diagnosis typically consists of two parts: the problem (Risk for Aspiration) and the related factor (reduced level of consciousness). This format helps clearly identify the client's health issue and its cause. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to a nursing diagnosis focusing on the client's response. Choice C is incorrect as it describes an outcome, not a diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect as a nursing diagnosis should be based on evidence, not made without support. Therefore, the correct choice is A due to the structure and clarity it provides in identifying the client's risk.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates because pneumonia causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, impairing gas exchange. The nurse chose this diagnosis based on the patient's chest x-ray results indicating lower lobe infiltrates, which directly affect gas exchange. Choice A is incorrect because "ineffective breathing pattern" does not specifically address the underlying physiological issue of impaired gas exchange. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on infection risk from the chest x-ray procedure, not the patient's medical condition. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not directly related to pneumonia and infiltrates.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in the humoral immune response, B cells are stimulated by T helper cells or macrophages to differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies or memory cells. This process involves the production of specific antibodies that target the foreign antigen. Choice A is incorrect because B cells do not phagocytize antigens; instead, they produce antibodies. Choice B is incorrect because T cells do not turn into plasma cells. It is the B cells that differentiate into plasma cells in the humoral immune response. Choice D is incorrect because T cells do not produce antibodies. T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, not the humoral immune response.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct size of suction catheter for James would be Fr. 5. The selection of suction catheter size is based on the patient's height and weight, as well as the secretions to be cleared. A Fr. 5 catheter is appropriate for an average adult like James, as it balances between being too small or too large. Fr. 12 and Fr. 18 are too large for his size and could cause trauma, while Fr. 10 is slightly larger than needed, increasing the risk of mucosal damage. Therefore, Fr. 5 is the most suitable choice for James.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sigmoidoscopy. Sigmoidoscopy is a direct visualization procedure that allows for examination of the lower part of the colon and rectum, where colorectal cancer commonly occurs. This procedure can help identify any abnormal growths or polyps that may indicate cancer. Stool hematest (A) detects blood in stool but does not confirm colorectal cancer. Abdominal CT (B) provides imaging of the abdomen but may not definitively diagnose colorectal cancer. CEA scan (C) measures a tumor marker associated with colorectal cancer but is not a definitive diagnostic test. Thus, sigmoidoscopy is the most appropriate diagnostic study for confirming colorectal cancer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent clot formation. Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of blood clots. In DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation), there is excessive clotting throughout the body, leading to organ damage. By administering heparin, we aim to prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because heparin does not increase clot formation; it works to inhibit clotting. Choice C is incorrect as heparin does not directly increase blood flow to target organs. Choice D is also incorrect as heparin does not decrease blood flow to target organs; its primary role is anticoagulation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia. Hyperglycemia can occur in adult clients due to various factors such as diabetes or stress. Hypokalemia can be a consequence of hyperglycemia or other conditions leading to potassium loss. Monitoring for these metabolic complications is essential to ensure the client's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia (choice A) are less likely to occur concurrently in adult clients. Hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia (choice B) are less common as hyperkalemia is usually associated with renal dysfunction. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia (choice D) are less likely to be monitored together as they are not commonly seen in the same clinical context.