ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a 28-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing syndrome, the nurse would expect a decline in:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: menstrual flow. In a 28-year-old female with Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol levels can disrupt the menstrual cycle, leading to irregular or absent periods. Successful treatment for Cushing syndrome aims to restore normal cortisol levels, which should result in the resumption of regular menstrual flow. This indicates that the hormonal balance is improving. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Serum glucose level - While Cushing syndrome can lead to hyperglycemia, successful treatment would aim to normalize glucose levels, not cause a decline. B: Bone mineralization - Cushing syndrome can cause osteoporosis due to loss of bone density, but successful treatment would help prevent further bone loss rather than decline. C: Hair loss - Cushing syndrome can cause hair loss, but successful treatment would not necessarily lead to a decline in hair loss as it may take time for hair to regrow. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the restoration of hormonal
Question 2 of 9
When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, which cranial nerve is being tested?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve. 2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII. 3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression. 4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression. 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression. Summary: Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse caring for an adult client. The nurse will need to monitor for which of the following metabolic complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia. Hyperglycemia can occur in adult clients due to various factors such as diabetes or stress. Hypokalemia can be a consequence of hyperglycemia or other conditions leading to potassium loss. Monitoring for these metabolic complications is essential to ensure the client's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia (choice A) are less likely to occur concurrently in adult clients. Hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia (choice B) are less common as hyperkalemia is usually associated with renal dysfunction. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia (choice D) are less likely to be monitored together as they are not commonly seen in the same clinical context.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because respirations of 16 is an observable and measurable data point that can be quantified. Objective data are factual, measurable, and based on observable phenomena. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are subjective data as they rely on the patient's feelings or experiences, which are not directly measurable or observable by the nurse. Reporting a headache or feeling nauseated are subjective symptoms that are based on the patient's perception and cannot be verified without further assessment. Therefore, only choice C provides objective data that can be accurately reported by the nurse.
Question 5 of 9
Which nursing actions will the nurse perform in the evaluation phase of the nursing process? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the evaluation phase of the nursing process, the nurse sets priorities for patient care to determine the effectiveness of nursing interventions. This involves comparing achieved outcomes with established goals. Choices B and D are related to evaluation as they involve determining whether outcomes or standards are met and documenting results of goal achievement, respectively. However, choice C, ambulating the patient, is an intervention that would typically occur in the implementation phase, not the evaluation phase. Therefore, the correct answer is A because setting priorities for patient care is a key component of the evaluation phase.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chronic ache or pain. Persistent cough and chronic ache or pain are both common warning signs of cancer. Chronic pain can be a symptom of various types of cancer, signaling the presence of a tumor or cancerous growth. It is important for the client to seek medical evaluation to rule out any underlying serious condition. A: Persistent nausea is not typically considered a common warning sign of cancer. While it can be a symptom in certain types of cancer or due to treatment side effects, it is not as prominent as chronic ache or pain. B: Indigestion is a common symptom that can be caused by various non-cancer-related issues such as dietary habits, stress, or gastrointestinal disorders. It is not typically considered a direct warning sign of cancer. C: Rash is generally not a common warning sign of cancer. Rashes are more commonly associated with skin conditions, allergic reactions, or infections rather than being an indicator of cancer.
Question 7 of 9
Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the American Cancer Society recommends women to have a mammogram annually starting at age 45, then have the option to transition to biennial screening at age 55. This recommendation is based on evidence that regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer early, increasing chances of successful treatment. Choice A is incorrect because self-examinations are no longer recommended as a routine screening method. Choice B is incorrect as clinical breast exams are not as effective as mammograms for detecting breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as normal receptor assays are not part of routine breast cancer screening guidelines.
Question 8 of 9
To treat cervical cancer, a client has had an applicator of radioactive material placed in the vagina. Which observation by the nurse indicates a radiation hazard?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because having the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle can cause the radioactive material to shift, potentially leading to an uneven distribution of radiation. This could result in harmful exposure to surrounding tissues. A: Maintaining the client on strict bed rest is important to prevent displacement of the radioactive applicator. C: Providing a complete bed bath each morning is necessary for hygiene and does not pose a radiation hazard. D: Checking the applicator's position every 4 hours is essential to ensure proper placement and does not indicate a radiation hazard.
Question 9 of 9
A client is being prepared for cardiac catheterization. The nurse performs an initial assessment and records the vital signs. Which of the following data collected can be classified as subjective data?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data refers to information provided by the client based on their feelings, perceptions, or beliefs. Nausea is a symptom that the client experiences and reports subjectively. The client feels nauseous, which is not something directly measurable like blood pressure, heart rate, or respiratory rate. Therefore, nausea is the correct choice for subjective data. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed.