Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Kitt-Tarozzi medium. This medium is specifically designed for the isolation and cultivation of Clostridium tetani, the bacteria responsible for tetanus. The other options, Sabouraud agar, Endo agar, and Hiss medium, are not suitable for the growth of Clostridium tetani. Sabouraud agar is used for fungal cultures, Endo agar is a selective medium for enteric bacteria, and Hiss medium is used for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria other than Clostridium tetani. Therefore, the Kitt-Tarozzi medium is the most appropriate choice for isolating and identifying the tetanus agent in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharides, which play a role in pathogenicity and resistance to certain antibiotics. This outer membrane is a distinguishing feature of Gram-negative bacteria, as opposed to Gram-positive bacteria that have a thick peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer, do have a cell wall (although it is different from Gram-positive bacteria), and do not contain teichoic acids.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycelium. Mycelium refers to the network of branching filaments that form the main body of a fungus. When fungi grow on solid media, they develop a visible mass of mycelium. Hyphae (A) are the individual filaments that make up mycelium. Spores (C) are reproductive cells produced by fungi. Columella (D) refers to a specialized structure found in some fungi but is not related to the colonies grown on solid media. Therefore, the correct term for the colonies of fungi on solid media is mycelium.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Malaria. The patient's symptoms of periodic chills, high fever, and profuse sweating, along with living in Africa where malaria is endemic, strongly suggest malaria. The enlarged liver and spleen are consistent with malaria infection. The low erythrocyte count indicates hemolysis, a common feature of malaria. Spotted fever and sepsis do not typically present with the same pattern of symptoms and travel history as seen in this case. Haemolytic anaemia would not explain the patient's fever episodes and other symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms, travel history, and laboratory findings, malaria is the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual transmission. The symptoms described are indicative of a vaginal yeast infection caused by Candida albicans. The presence of large gram-positive oval oblong cells forming pseudomycelium is characteristic of Candida infection. Sexual transmission is the most probable channel of infection as Candida can be transmitted through sexual contact. Endogenous infection (A) refers to infections originating from the body's own flora, which is not the case here. Contact infection (C) typically involves direct physical contact or fomite transmission, which is less likely in this scenario. Vector-borne transmission (D) involves transmission through vectors like mosquitoes or ticks, which is not relevant in this case.