ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
In 8 days after a surgery the patient developed tetanus. The surgeon suspects this condition to be caused by suture material contaminated by tetanus agent. The material is delivered to a bacteriological laboratory. What nutrient medium is required for primary inoculation of the suture material?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kitt-Tarozzi medium. This medium is used for the primary inoculation of suture material suspected of causing tetanus. The rationale is that Kitt-Tarozzi medium contains the necessary nutrients to support the growth of Clostridium tetani, the bacterium responsible for tetanus. This medium is selective and helps in isolating the specific pathogen from the contaminated suture material. Summary of other choices: B: Endo agar is used for the isolation of Gram-negative bacteria from clinical and non-clinical samples. C: Sabouraud agar is used for the isolation of fungi and yeast. D: Egg-yolk salt agar is used for the detection of lipase-producing bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 2 of 9
The neonatal infection referred to as “sticky eye†is caused by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staphylococcus. Staphylococcus is a common bacteria that can cause neonatal conjunctivitis, also known as "sticky eye." Staphylococcal conjunctivitis presents with symptoms like eye redness, discharge, and swelling. Streptococcus (choice A) typically causes throat infections, herpes simplex (choice B) causes genital or oral sores, and Escherichia (choice D) is a bacteria commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract and is not typically associated with neonatal conjunctivitis. Therefore, the most likely pathogen causing "sticky eye" in newborns is Staphylococcus.
Question 3 of 9
Sanitary control is applied to monitor the quality of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sanitary control is crucial for monitoring the quality of a wide range of essential services to ensure public health and safety. Food safety, drinking water quality, cleanliness in restaurants, hygiene in healthcare settings, and transportation systems all fall under the purview of sanitary control. Therefore, option A is the most comprehensive and accurate choice. Option B is incorrect because it does not include monitoring restaurants, health care services, and transport, which are important aspects of sanitary control. Option C is incorrect as it excludes transportation, an essential area that requires sanitary monitoring. Option D is incorrect as it does not cover health care services, which are critical for ensuring public health and safety.
Question 4 of 9
This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.
Question 5 of 9
Which bacteria produce a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. This bacteria produces the Shiga toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis by interfering with the ribosomes. Shigella dysenteriae causes severe gastrointestinal illness. The other choices, B: Clostridium botulinum, produces a neurotoxin that blocks neurotransmitter release. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia and other respiratory infections. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis by infecting the lungs. Thus, based on the toxin production and mode of action, Shigella dysenteriae is the correct answer.
Question 6 of 9
The causative agent of typhoid fever is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella typhi. Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi, specifically transmitted through contaminated food and water. Shigella dysenteriae causes bacillary dysentery, Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, and Escherichia coli can cause various gastrointestinal illnesses, but not typhoid fever. Identifying the causative agent is crucial for effective treatment and prevention strategies.
Question 7 of 9
Bacteriological inspection of disinfection quality at a pharmacy revealed a microorganism in an utility room (in the sink). The microorganism has the following properties: mobile nonspore-forming gram- negative bacteria that form capsular substance, grow well on ordinary nutrient media, secrete the blue-green pigment. This microorganism is most likely to be of the following genus:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas. Rationale: 1. Mobile nonspore-forming gram-negative bacteria with a capsule substance indicate Pseudomonas. 2. Pseudomonas grow well on ordinary nutrient media, matching the description. 3. The secretion of a blue-green pigment is a characteristic feature of Pseudomonas. 4. Proteus is a gram-negative bacterium but does not match all the given properties. 5. Clostridium is a gram-positive bacterium that forms spores. 6. Shigella is a gram-negative bacterium but does not have the other characteristics mentioned. Therefore, based on the properties described, the most likely genus of the microorganism is Pseudomonas.
Question 8 of 9
The most rapid rate of drug absorption is achieved by __________ administration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: intravenous administration. This route bypasses the first-pass metabolism, allowing the drug to directly enter the bloodstream for immediate distribution. In contrast, on the skin (A) and sublingual (D) routes have slower absorption rates due to barriers like skin layers or mucous membranes. Intramuscular (C) absorption is slower than intravenous due to slower perfusion rates in muscle tissues. Overall, intravenous administration provides the fastest and most direct route for drug absorption, making it the most rapid method.
Question 9 of 9
A patient being treated for tuberculosis is suffering from hearing deterioration. What drug causes this complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptomycin. Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis that can cause hearing loss as a side effect. It is known to damage the cochlear and vestibular organs in the inner ear. The other choices, B: Isoniazid, C: Rifampicin, and D: Ethionamide, are not associated with causing hearing deterioration as a side effect. Isoniazid can rarely cause peripheral neuropathy, Rifampicin can lead to hepatotoxicity, and Ethionamide may cause gastrointestinal disturbances, but none of these drugs are known to specifically cause hearing loss.