ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 12 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Impression smear of mucosa biopsy material has been obtained from a patient with peptic ulcer disease of the stomach. Gram-negative arcuate bent microorganisms were detected, urease activity test was positive. What microorganisms were detected in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter. Helicobacter pylori is the main causative agent of peptic ulcer disease and is characterized by its gram-negative arcuate bent shape and positive urease activity. Helicobacter pylori specifically colonizes the stomach mucosa and is associated with various gastrointestinal disorders. Spirochetes (choice B), spirilla (choice C), and Leptospira (choice D) are not typically associated with peptic ulcer disease or stomach mucosa infections, making them incorrect choices in this context.
Question 2 of 9
Media that contain complex organic substances such as blood for the growth of specific bacteria are referred to as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: enriched media. Enriched media contain additional nutrients such as blood to support the growth of fastidious bacteria. This allows for the cultivation of a wider range of microorganisms. General-purpose media (B) contain basic nutrients for a variety of bacteria. Reducing media (C) create anaerobic conditions, not necessarily rich in organic substances. Differential media (D) contain indicators to distinguish between different types of microorganisms, not necessarily enriched with organic substances.
Question 3 of 9
The family Reoviridae includes the genera:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it lists the genera that belong to the family Reoviridae accurately. Orthoreovirus and Rotavirus are well-known genera within the family Reoviridae. Orbivirus is another genus belonging to the same family. Choice B is incorrect because Orthoretrovirus and Retrovirus are not part of the Reoviridae family. Orbfiloviridae is also not a valid genus within this family. Choice C is incorrect because Orthoretrovirus and Retrovirus are not part of the Reoviridae family. Orbivirus is the correct genus but the other two are inaccurate. Choice D is incorrect because Orthoretrovirus and Retrovirus are not part of the Reoviridae family. Orbarenaviridaefiloviridae is not a valid genus within Reoviridae.
Question 4 of 9
Micellar growth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Micellar growth refers to the apical prolongation of hyphae in fungi. Step 2: Fungi have a unique growth structure with hyphae extending at the tips. Step 3: This growth pattern allows fungi to expand and access nutrients. Step 4: Bacterial cells (A) do not exhibit micellar growth. Step 5: Parent and daughter cells in division have similar sizes, not different (B). Step 6: Viruses and rickettsia (C) do not display micellar growth.
Question 5 of 9
All the statements about Pseudomonas aeruginosa are correct, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: It is non-motile and non-spore forming. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is motile due to its flagella and is non-spore forming. A is correct because it is a Gram-negative bacterium, and B is correct as it is oxidase-positive. D is incorrect because C is not true.
Question 6 of 9
Shigella sonnei can escape phagocytic clearance by which mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Shigella sonnei escapes phagocytic clearance by lysing the phagosome and replicating in the cytoplasm. This allows the bacterium to avoid being destroyed by the acidic environment and enzymes in the phagolysosome. Choice B is incorrect as Shigella does not have a capsule. Choice C is incorrect because Shigella actually induces phagosome-lysosome fusion to facilitate its escape. Choice D is incorrect as protein A is a component of Staphylococcus aureus, not Shigella sonnei.
Question 7 of 9
A Gram-stained sputum smear revealed Gram-positive rods in chains with central spores. The patient presented with severe pneumonia. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The presence of Gram-positive rods in chains with central spores on the Gram stain indicates Bacillus anthracis. This bacterium is known to cause severe pneumonia. Clostridium tetani does not typically cause pneumonia but rather tetanus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive cocci, not rods. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly associated with pneumonia, but it does not form central spores.
Question 8 of 9
Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intestinal trichomonad. This protozoan matches the description provided, with pyriform shape, twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, supporting filaments, and a suctorial disc. Lamblia (A) lacks flagella and supporting filaments. Toxoplasma (B) is an intracellular parasite with different morphology. Leishmania (C) belongs to a different class with no flagella or supporting filaments. In summary, the unique combination of features described in the question points to an intestinal trichomonad, making it the correct answer.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had a sputum culture revealing Gram-positive diplococci. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive diplococci suggest a pneumococcal infection. Step 2: Catalase-negative indicates Streptococcus. Step 3: Alpha-hemolysis matches S. pneumoniae's characteristics. Therefore, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is Gram-negative, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is not diplococci or alpha-hemolytic.