Immunity after single vaccination against tetanus - application of tetanus toxoid is:

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Question 1 of 9

Immunity after single vaccination against tetanus - application of tetanus toxoid is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immunity after a single tetanus vaccination is of limited duration, usually around 10 years. Booster vaccinations are needed to maintain protection due to waning immunity over time. Choice A is incorrect as immunity is not usually lifelong. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid is a sterile vaccine and does not cause infection. Choice D is also incorrect as there is a correct answer, which is B.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: protozoans. Pinworms are commonly referred to as Enterobius vermicularis, which are parasitic worms belonging to the phylum Nematoda. Protozoans are single-celled organisms, and pinworms are multicellular worms. Algae are photosynthetic organisms, helminths are parasitic worms (which pinworms fall under), and fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds and yeasts. Therefore, protozoans are the correct choice for organisms commonly referred to as pinworms.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following viruses belongs to family Arenaviridae?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lassa virus. The rationale is as follows: 1. Lassa virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae, known for causing Lassa fever. 2. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family. 4. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family. In summary, Lassa virus is the correct answer because it is the only virus listed that belongs to the Arenaviridae family.

Question 4 of 9

A wound culture grew Gram-negative rods that were oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenters. What is the most likely microorganism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenting. The positive oxidase test indicates the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, a characteristic of P. aerugin. E. coli is lactose fermenting. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods, but they are lactose fermenters, unlike the lactose non-fermenting P. aeruginosa.

Question 5 of 9

Microscopy of sputum from a tuberculosis patient revealed acid-fast rods stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method. What structural feature allows this staining?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycolic acid in the cell wall. Mycolic acid is a unique component of the cell wall of Mycobacterium species, including the causative agent of tuberculosis. The Ziehl-Neelsen method uses acid-fast staining, where mycolic acid confers resistance to decolorization by acid-alcohol, causing the bacteria to retain the red stain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as capsules, flagella, and peptidoglycan layers do not directly contribute to acid-fast staining characteristic of Mycobacterium species.

Question 6 of 9

Microscopy of a smear taken from the film that appeared on the peptone water 6 hours after seeding and culturing of a fecal sample in a thermostat revealed mobile gram-negative bacteria curved in form of a comma that didn't make spores or capsules. What microorganisms were revealed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrios. Vibrios are gram-negative curved bacteria that are motile and do not form spores or capsules. The description of the bacteria in the question fits the characteristics of Vibrios. Vibrios are commonly found in aquatic environments and some species can cause gastrointestinal infections in humans. B: Spirochetes are also gram-negative curved bacteria, but they are spiral-shaped and have unique axial filaments for motility. The description in the question does not match the characteristics of spirochetes. C: Clostridia are gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria. The question specifically states that the bacteria are gram-negative and do not form spores, ruling out Clostridia. D: Corynebacteria are gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacteria. The description in the question does not match the characteristics of Corynebacteria.

Question 7 of 9

A 28-year-old patient was hospitalized with preliminary diagnosis "influenza". Roseolous-petechial rash appeared on the 5th day of disease on the trunk. The temperature is 41oC. Hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of tongue, tachycardia, splenomegaly are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Epidemic typhus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. The presence of roseolous-petechial rash, high fever (41oC), hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of the tongue, tachycardia, and splenomegaly are classic signs of epidemic typhus. The rash typically appears around the 5th day of the disease. Summary: - B: Measles typically presents with a maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading downward. It doesn't usually present with tremor of the tongue or splenomegaly. - C: Alcohol delirium is characterized by confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations due to alcohol consumption. It doesn't match the symptoms described. - D: Leptospirosis presents with fever, muscle pain, and conjunctival suffusion. It doesn't typically present with the specific rash and trem

Question 8 of 9

According to the location of flagella on their surface, bacteria can be:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of these." Monotrichous bacteria have a single flagellum at one end, amphitrichous have flagella at both ends, and peritrichous have flagella distributed all over the surface. The answer D is correct because it includes all these possibilities based on flagella location. Monotrichous is incorrect as it only refers to a single flagellum, amphitrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella at both ends, and peritrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella all over the surface. Therefore, the correct answer encompasses all these options.

Question 9 of 9

The infectious (non-sterile) immunity is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because infectious (non-sterile) immunity is achieved through the persistence of the infectious agent in the body, allowing the immune system to continuously recognize and combat the pathogen. This type of immunity provides long-lasting protection against future infections by the same agent. Choice A (cross-reactivity of antibodies) is incorrect as it refers to the ability of antibodies to recognize similar antigens, not necessarily related to infectious immunity. Choice B (toxemia and formation of antitoxic antibodies) is incorrect as it specifically relates to toxins produced by pathogens and the corresponding antibody response, not the persistence of the infectious agent itself. Choice D (neutralization of infectious agent) is incorrect as it describes the process of antibodies binding to and inactivating pathogens, but it does not necessarily lead to long-term immunity through the persistence of the infectious agent.

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