Immunity after single vaccination against tetanus - application of tetanus toxoid is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immunity after a single tetanus vaccination is of limited duration, usually around 10 years. Booster vaccinations are needed to maintain protection due to waning immunity over time. Choice A is incorrect as immunity is not usually lifelong. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid is a sterile vaccine and does not cause infection. Choice D is also incorrect as there is a correct answer, which is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Pneumonic plague. The patient's symptoms align with the presentation of pneumonic plague, caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. Symptoms include high fever, severe headache, dyspnea, cough with bloody sputum, and cyanosis. The characteristic bubonic plague lymphadenopathy may be absent in the pneumonic form. The patient's recent travel history to India also raises suspicion, as plague is endemic in some regions. The other choices can be ruled out based on the patient's symptoms and presentation. Miliary tuberculosis typically presents with diffuse miliary nodules on imaging. Influenza typically presents with more generalized symptoms and does not usually cause rusty sputum. Ornithosis is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci and usually presents with pneumonia-like symptoms after exposure to infected birds.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific for detecting anthrax spores, providing quick and accurate results. They bind only to the anthrax causative agent, allowing for precise identification. Choice A (Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum) is incorrect because it is not as specific and sensitive as monoclonal antibodies. Choice B (Standard anthrax antigen) is incorrect as it is used to stimulate antibody production in the body, not for direct detection of spores. Choice C (Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin) is incorrect as it is a general term for antibodies and may not be specific to anthrax spores. In summary, monoclonal antibodies are the most suitable option for quick and accurate detection of anthrax spores due to their high specificity and sensitivity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Syphilis. The Wasserman reaction is a test for syphilis, specifically for detecting antibodies against the bacterium Treponema pallidum. In a 30-year-old man with a markedly positive Wasserman reaction, it indicates an active syphilis infection. Brucellosis (Choice A) is not diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction. Poliomyelitis (Choice C) is a viral infection affecting the spinal cord, not diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction. Influenza (Choice D) is a respiratory viral infection, not associated with the Wasserman reaction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycolic acid in the cell wall. Mycolic acid is a unique component of the cell wall of Mycobacterium species, including the causative agent of tuberculosis. The Ziehl-Neelsen method uses acid-fast staining, where mycolic acid confers resistance to decolorization by acid-alcohol, causing the bacteria to retain the red stain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as capsules, flagella, and peptidoglycan layers do not directly contribute to acid-fast staining characteristic of Mycobacterium species.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: bacteria. Bacteria are the most common cause of laboratory-acquired infections due to their ability to survive and multiply in various environments. They can easily contaminate lab equipment and surfaces, leading to infections if proper precautions are not taken. Viruses (choice B) are less common in laboratory-acquired infections as they require specific conditions to survive outside a host. Protozoans (choice C) are larger and less likely to be transmitted in a laboratory setting. Prions (choice D) are misfolded proteins and are not considered living organisms, making them an unlikely source of laboratory infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. The symptoms of tonic tension of the masticatory muscles following a dog bite are indicative of tetanus, caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani. The incubation period of tetanus is usually 3-21 days, consistent with the patient's history of being bitten 12 days ago. Tetanus toxin causes muscle stiffness and spasms, leading to the inability to open the mouth. Rabies (B) presents with hydrophobia and neurological symptoms. Hysteria (C) is a psychological condition. Trigeminal neuralgia (D) is characterized by severe facial pain, not muscle stiffness.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immunity after a single tetanus vaccination is of limited duration, usually around 10 years. Booster vaccinations are needed to maintain protection due to waning immunity over time. Choice A is incorrect as immunity is not usually lifelong. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid is a sterile vaccine and does not cause infection. Choice D is also incorrect as there is a correct answer, which is B.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: young adults. Young adults are at a higher risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) due to factors such as engaging in risky sexual behaviors, lack of awareness, and inconsistent condom use. They are more likely to have multiple sexual partners and are less likely to seek regular STI screenings. Adolescents, while also at risk, may not make up almost half of all STI cases in the U.S. The elderly, on the other hand, are generally at a lower risk due to lower levels of sexual activity compared to young adults.