ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolated systolic hypertension. This is because in isolated systolic hypertension, the systolic blood pressure is elevated while the diastolic blood pressure remains normal. This condition is common in older adults and is often related to aging and stiffening of the arteries. Primary hypertension (A) typically involves both elevated systolic and diastolic pressures. Secondary hypertension (C) is caused by an underlying condition. Hypertensive emergency (D) is characterized by severe elevations in both systolic and diastolic pressures with acute target organ damage.
Question 2 of 5
Why should clients who take warfarin (Coumadin) refrain from food items such as green leafy vegetables and soybeans?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because green leafy vegetables and soybeans are high in Vitamin K, which counteracts the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. By consuming Vitamin K-rich foods, the medication's effectiveness is reduced, leading to an increased risk of blood clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific interaction between Vitamin K and warfarin in affecting coagulation. Choice B suggests the opposite effect of what actually occurs. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the pharmacological mechanism of warfarin.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse knows that a client understands a low residue diet when he selects which of the following from the menu?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rice and lean chicken. A low residue diet aims to reduce fiber intake to ease digestion. Rice and lean chicken are low in fiber and easy to digest. Pasta with vegetables (B) contains high-fiber vegetables. Strawberry pie (C) is high in fiber due to fruit and crust. Tuna casserole (D) may contain high-fiber ingredients like noodles and vegetables. Therefore, A is the best choice for a low residue diet.
Question 4 of 5
An adult has a central venous line. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture are crucial in caring for a patient with a central venous line to prevent serious complications. Infections can lead to sepsis, air embolus can cause respiratory distress, and leakage/puncture can result in hemorrhage or damage to surrounding tissues. A: While a complete blood count and electrolytes may be important for monitoring the patient's overall health, they are not specific to the central venous line care. B: Regular chest x-rays are not necessary unless there are specific indications of line malposition or complications. C: Continuous infusion at a keep-vein-open rate is a standard practice but does not address the critical aspects of central line care mentioned in option D. Therefore, monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture is the most essential component of the plan of care for a patient with a central venous line.
Question 5 of 5
Bell’s palsy is a ___ cranial nerve disorder characterized by weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7th cranial nerve. Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (7th cranial nerve), leading to facial muscle weakness or paralysis. The 3rd cranial nerve (choice A) controls eye movement, the 5th cranial nerve (choice C) is responsible for facial sensation and chewing, and the 8th cranial nerve (choice D) is related to hearing and balance. Bell's palsy specifically affects the facial muscles, making choice B the correct answer.