ATI RN
Introduction to Pharmacology ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
If a patient is taking an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for signs of angioedema which include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Angioedema is a potentially serious side effect of ACE inhibitors. It involves swelling of the deeper layers of the skin and submucosal tissues and can affect areas such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and extremities. One of the key signs of angioedema is difficulty breathing, or dyspnea. Other signs may include swelling, itching, and hives. It is crucial for nurses to monitor patients taking ACE inhibitors for any signs of angioedema as it can rapidly progress and lead to airway compromise and respiratory distress. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent any serious complications.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is he at risk for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients who are immunocompromised due to organ transplant and subsequent immunosuppressive medications are at an increased risk of developing infections. The immunosuppressive medications weaken the immune system's ability to fight off pathogens, making the patient susceptible to various types of infections. Therefore, a patient who has received a kidney transplant is at risk for infections and should be monitored closely for any signs or symptoms of infection.
Question 3 of 5
A 20-year-old woman who is 15 weeks pregnant is admitted feverish and dehydrated with acute severe asthma associated with a community-acquired pneumonia. She has a history of angioedema following a cephalosporin. Which of the following is not appropriate therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute asthma and pneumonia in pregnancy require urgent care. IV crystalloids rehydrate, safe and necessary. High FiO2 (40%) supports oxygenation in asthma/pneumonia, appropriate. Nebulized salbutamol, a beta-agonist, relieves bronchospasm, standard and safe. IV hydrocortisone reduces inflammation, suitable. IV gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, treats pneumonia but is inappropriate due to cephalosporin cross-reactivity risk (angioedema history) and fetal ototoxicity concerns, making it unsafe here. Alternative antibiotics (e.g., macrolides) are preferred, prioritizing maternal and fetal safety.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) has been prescribed prazosin (Minipress) and asks the nurse what this is going to do for him. The nurse’s response will include what action to explain the purpose of taking this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alpha1-selective adrenergic blocking agents block smooth muscle receptors in the prostate, prostatic capsule, prostatic urethra, and urinary bladder neck, which leads to a relaxation of the bladder and prostate and improved flow of urine in male patients. Although they also block the postsynaptic alpha1-receptor sites, causing a decrease in vascular tone and vasodilation that leads to a fall in blood pressure without the reflex tachycardia that occurs when the presynaptic alpha2-receptor sites are blocked, this is not the purpose for administering the drug to a patient with BPH. They do not reduce the size of the prostate.
Question 5 of 5
Regarding calcium channel blockers:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: All calcium channel blockers (CCBs) like verapamil and nifedipine are orally active, so that's false. Half-lives vary (e.g., nifedipine ~2-5 hours, diltiazem longer), not uniformly 8-12 hours, making that false. They block L-type voltage-gated calcium channels, reducing vascular and cardiac contractility, a true statement. They relax bronchiolar smooth muscle, not unaffected, so that's false. Dihydropyridines cause reflex tachycardia, not bradycardia. The L-type blockade is their unifying mechanism, key to antihypertensive and antianginal effects.