ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
If a patient has elevated pulmonary vascular pressures, the nurse understands that the patient is most likely to develop which of the ff. physiological cardiac changes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Right ventricular hypertrophy. Elevated pulmonary vascular pressures lead to increased resistance in the pulmonary circulation, causing the right ventricle to work harder to pump blood to the lungs. Over time, this can result in hypertrophy of the right ventricle as it adapts to the increased workload. Left atrial atrophy (A) and right atrial atrophy (C) are unlikely as the atria are not directly affected by elevated pulmonary pressures. Left ventricular hypertrophy (B) is not the correct choice as it typically occurs in response to systemic hypertension, not pulmonary hypertension.
Question 2 of 5
Mr. Reyes has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs of brain injury, such as altered level of consciousness, unequal pupil size, and clear fluid draining from the nose or ears, indicate a need for urgent medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because hemorrhaging from the oral cavity is not a common sign of a skull fracture. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the foot of the bed is not appropriate for a skull fracture but may be done for shock. Choice D is incorrect because decreased intracranial pressure and temperature are not typical symptoms of a skull fracture.
Question 3 of 5
What would be the most appropriate intervention for a patient with aphasia who state, "I want a ..." and then stops?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Waiting for the patient to complete the sentence is the most appropriate intervention as it allows the patient time to formulate their thoughts and express themselves. It shows patience and respect for the patient's communication process. B: Immediately showing objects may overwhelm the patient and not allow them to express their thoughts fully. C: Leaving the room would not address the patient's communication difficulty and could make them feel abandoned or misunderstood. D: Naming objects for the patient assumes what they are trying to say and may not accurately represent their intended message.
Question 4 of 5
Which laboratory study is monitored for the patient receiving heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) because it specifically measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A prolonged PTT indicates that heparin is achieving the desired anticoagulant effect. A: INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. C: PT (Prothrombin Time) is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. D: Bleeding time is not typically used to monitor heparin therapy and is more focused on platelet function rather than coagulation factors.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is developing outcomes for a specific problem statement. What is one of the most important considerations the nurse should have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because involving the client and family in developing outcomes promotes patient-centered care and increases the likelihood of achieving successful outcomes. This approach fosters collaboration, shared decision-making, and empowers the client and family in their own care. It also helps to ensure that the outcomes align with the client's values, preferences, and goals. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because focusing solely on nursing goals without considering the client's perspective may lead to a lack of engagement and poor outcomes. Discouraging input from other healthcare providers limits the interdisciplinary approach to care, and focusing on why the nurse believes the outcome is important neglects the client's role in the decision-making process.
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