ATI RN
NCLEX RN Infection Control Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
If a microorganism is known to produce a disease, it is referred to as a
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A microorganism that is known to produce a disease is referred to as a pathogen. Pathogens are capable of causing infections or diseases in their hosts. Therefore, both options A (pathogen) and B (pathogenic microorganism) are correct as they describe the same concept. Option C (normal flora) is incorrect because normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally reside in or on the body without causing harm or disease. Option D (A and B only) is correct because it includes the correct options A and B.
Question 2 of 5
The latest CDC guidelines designate standard precautions for all substances except which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of infection control, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand and adhere to standard precautions to prevent the spread of infections. The correct answer to the question is option C) sweat. Sweat is not considered a high-risk body fluid for transmitting infections, unlike blood, urine, and vomitus. Blood is a known carrier of bloodborne pathogens such as HIV and hepatitis B, making it a high-risk fluid requiring strict precautions. Urine can contain infectious agents like bacteria or viruses, necessitating precautions. Vomitus, while not as high risk as blood, can still harbor pathogens that can spread infection. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind standard precautions and which body fluids require specific handling protocols is essential for nurses preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam and clinical practice. This knowledge ensures patient and healthcare provider safety and effective infection control measures in healthcare settings.
Question 3 of 5
Which of these pulmonary conditions is most likely to be seen with a CD4 count between 200 and 500 ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this NCLEX RN Infection Control question, the correct answer is A) pulmonary TB. When a patient's CD4 count falls between 200 and 500, their immune system is moderately compromised. Pulmonary TB is an opportunistic infection commonly seen in individuals with compromised immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Option B) CMV (Cytomegalovirus) is more commonly associated with lower CD4 counts (<200) and severe immunosuppression. Option C) PCP (Pneumocystis pneumonia) is typically seen in individuals with CD4 counts below 200, indicating severe immunosuppression. Option D) Kaposi sarcoma is linked to very low CD4 counts (<100) and significant immunosuppression. Educationally, understanding the relationship between CD4 counts and opportunistic infections is crucial for nurses caring for patients with HIV/AIDS. This knowledge helps in recognizing potential complications, initiating appropriate treatments, and providing comprehensive care. By grasping the nuances of these conditions in relation to CD4 counts, nurses can better advocate for their patients' health and well-being.
Question 4 of 5
Which is not associated with atypical pneumonia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of NCLEX RN Infection Control questions, the correct answer is B) hypernatremia, as it is not typically associated with atypical pneumonia. Atypical pneumonia is commonly caused by bacteria such as Mycoplasma pneumoniae or viruses like influenza and does not usually lead to hypernatremia. Option A) abnormal LFTs can be seen in pneumonia due to inflammatory processes affecting the liver. Option C) hypophosphatemia can occur in atypical pneumonia due to shifts of phosphate into cells, leading to decreased serum levels. Option D) bilateral patchy infiltrates on CXR are a common radiographic finding in atypical pneumonia due to the inflammatory response in the lungs. Educationally, understanding the association between clinical manifestations and different types of pneumonia is crucial for nurses to provide effective care and make appropriate clinical decisions. This question helps reinforce the importance of recognizing key indicators to differentiate between different types of pneumonia and provide targeted interventions based on the underlying cause.
Question 5 of 5
The suture material which poses the highest risk of infection is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of infection control in wound care, the correct answer to the question is option C) Silk. Silk suture material poses the highest risk of infection due to its nature of being braided, which provides a larger surface area for bacteria to adhere to and proliferate. This increases the likelihood of introducing pathogens into the wound site, leading to infections. Option A) Vicryl is an absorbable suture material made of synthetic polymer and is less likely to cause infection compared to silk. Option B) Chromic gut is a natural absorbable suture derived from the submucosa of sheep intestines and while it carries a lower risk of infection compared to silk, it is still higher than synthetic materials like Vicryl and Prolene (option D). Educationally, understanding the properties of different suture materials and their implications for infection control is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses preparing for the NCLEX RN exam. This knowledge helps in making informed decisions when selecting suture materials for wound closure to minimize the risk of postoperative complications such as infections, promoting optimal patient outcomes.