ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Identify which substances in the glomerular filtrate would indicate a problem with renal function. (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of protein in the glomerular filtrate indicates a problem with renal function as healthy kidneys should not allow large molecules like proteins to pass through the filtration barrier. This could be a sign of kidney damage or dysfunction. Sodium, creatinine, and red blood cells are normally present in the filtrate and are not specific indicators of renal function issues. Sodium is actively reabsorbed in the renal tubules, creatinine is a waste product filtered by the kidneys, and a small number of red blood cells may pass through the filtration barrier under normal circumstances.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS. Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm. Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is receiving hydrocortisone sodium succinate for adrenal crisis. What other medication does the nurse prepare to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A proton pump inhibitor. When a patient is receiving hydrocortisone for adrenal crisis, it can lead to increased gastric acid secretion. A proton pump inhibitor helps reduce acid production and prevents gastric ulcers. Regular insulin (A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Canagliflozin (C) is a medication used for diabetes management and is not relevant here. Propranolol (D) is a beta-blocker and may mask signs of hypoglycemia when used with insulin, which is not suitable in this case.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is admitted to the oncology unit with a small-cell lung carcinoma. During the admission, the patient is noted to have a significant decrease in urine output accompanied by shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes. The nurse is aware that this clinical presentation is consistent with
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of decreased urine output, shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes are indicative of fluid overload due to SIADH. SIADH causes excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. This results in edema, decreased urine output, and neurological symptoms. A: Adrenal crisis presents with hypotension, shock, and electrolyte abnormalities, not consistent with the patient's symptoms. B: Diabetes insipidus would present with excessive urine output and thirst, opposite of the patient's symptoms. C: Myxedema coma results from severe hypothyroidism and presents with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, not consistent with the patient's symptoms. In summary, the patient's clinical presentation aligns