Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

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Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.

Question 2 of 9

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Side effects of antipsychotic medications commonly include tardive dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Muscle tension is not typically associated with antipsychotic medication use. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements, orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, and hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels. Monitoring these side effects is crucial for early detection and management, but muscle tension is not a typical side effect of antipsychotic medications.

Question 3 of 9

During a mental health assessment on an adult client, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, self-actualization is the highest level. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential reflects self-actualization. This level represents achieving personal growth, self-improvement, and reaching one's full potential, indicating optimal mental health. Choices A, B, and D represent lower levels of needs according to Maslow's hierarchy. Maintaining a long-term relationship indicates belongingness and love needs, achieving self-confidence pertains to esteem needs, and developing a sense of purpose relates to self-esteem and self-actualization needs, but they are not at the pinnacle of self-actualization as in choice C.

Question 4 of 9

At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

Question 5 of 9

Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following symptoms should a healthcare provider expect to assess in a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder include excessive worry, muscle tension, restlessness, and irritability. Increased energy is not typically associated with GAD; clients often experience fatigue instead. This heightened energy level is more commonly seen in conditions like mania or hypomania, rather than in GAD. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased energy.' Choices A, B, and D are all symptoms commonly observed in individuals with generalized anxiety disorder.

Question 7 of 9

A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, 'How can I go to work if I can't afford childcare?' What is the nurse's initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's initial step should be to assess the facts of the situation. By gathering accurate information about the client's circumstances, the nurse can better understand the problem and make informed decisions moving forward. This foundational assessment is crucial before proceeding to formulate goals, evaluate outcomes, or consider risks and benefits. Options A, B, and C involve steps that should follow the initial assessment of the situation, making them less suitable as the initial action in this context.

Question 8 of 9

A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

Question 9 of 9

Which should the healthcare provider recognize as a DSM-5 disorder?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The DSM-5 categorizes mental health disorders for diagnostic purposes. Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the disorders listed in the DSM-5, characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various events or activities. This disorder falls under the category of anxiety disorders, which also include panic disorder, phobias, and others. Choices A, C, and D are not DSM-5 disorders. Obesity and hypertension are medical conditions, while grief, though a significant emotional response, is not classified as a mental health disorder in the DSM-5.

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