Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome involves underdevelopment of the left ventricle, aortic valve, and aortic arch. 2. The left ventricle is essential for pumping oxygenated blood to the body. 3. Aortic valve controls blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. 4. Aortic arch connects the ascending and descending aorta. Summary: A - Incorrect, as it includes pulmonary veins not related to hypoplastic left heart syndrome. B - Incorrect, as it includes structures not primarily affected in this condition. C - Incorrect, as it does not involve structures related to the left side of the heart.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Post-splenectomy, platelet count typically drops temporarily, leading to a risk of bleeding. Step 2: To compensate, the body increases hemoglobin (Hgb) levels to maintain oxygen-carrying capacity. Step 3: Therefore, on postoperative day 2, an increased Hgb level is expected. Summary: A is incorrect because MCV is not typically affected in this scenario. C is incorrect because platelet count usually decreases post-splenectomy. D is incorrect as albumin levels are not directly impacted by splenectomy for ITP.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Occipito posterior position. Forceps delivery may be indicated in this situation to help rotate the baby's head and facilitate delivery. Occipito posterior position can lead to prolonged labor and fetal distress, making forceps delivery necessary for a safe delivery. Incorrect choices: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion is not an indication for forceps delivery as it refers to mismatch between the size of the baby's head and the mother's pelvis. C: Breech presentation typically requires a different approach such as cesarean section rather than forceps delivery. D: Placenta abruption, a medical emergency, would not be managed with forceps delivery but rather require immediate intervention to prevent harm to both the mother and baby.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because secondary postpartum hemorrhage typically occurs between the 8th-14th day postpartum and can extend up to 6 weeks after delivery. This timeframe aligns with the physiological changes and healing process after childbirth. Choice B is incorrect because it contradicts the established timeframe for secondary postpartum hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect as secondary postpartum hemorrhage is not rare but rather a recognized complication that can occur after childbirth. Choice D is incorrect as secondary postpartum hemorrhage does not happen sporadically, but rather follows a defined timeframe based on postpartum physiological changes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pressure applied on the cervix by the presenting part in obstructed labor leads to edema of the vulva. This pressure causes obstruction of blood and lymphatic flow in the area, resulting in swelling and edema. Prolonged effort by the mother (choice A) would not directly cause vulvar edema. An ill-fitting presenting part (choice C) may contribute to obstruction but does not explain the mechanism of edema. Large presenting diameters (choice D) stretching the vulva would not directly cause edema without pressure on the cervix.