Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep

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Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification Questions

Question 1 of 5

Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pharmacology, the correct answer to the question regarding hypnotic benzodiazepines and their effect on sleep stages is A) Stage II. Hypnotic benzodiazepines, such as triazolam and temazepam, are known to increase the period of time spent in Stage II of sleep. Stage II is characterized by the presence of sleep spindles and K-complexes, which are important for memory consolidation and overall sleep quality. In contrast, the other stages mentioned in the options are affected differently by drugs. Stage III and IV are deep sleep stages collectively known as slow-wave sleep (SWS), which is typically decreased by benzodiazepines. REM stage, characterized by rapid eye movement and dreaming, is also usually suppressed by these drugs. Educationally, understanding the effects of CNS drugs on sleep stages is vital for healthcare professionals prescribing these medications. It helps in predicting potential side effects or benefits for patients with sleep disorders. Moreover, for students studying pharmacology, grasping this concept enhances their comprehension of drug mechanisms and therapeutic applications in clinical practice.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following is the most suitable drug for a 6-year-old girl suffering from absence seizures with occasional generalized tonic-clonic seizures?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a 6-year-old girl suffering from absence seizures with occasional generalized tonic-clonic seizures, the most suitable drug would be Sodium valproate (Option B). This is because Sodium valproate is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug that is effective for various seizure types, including absence seizures and tonic-clonic seizures, making it a suitable choice for managing both types of seizures in this patient. Ethosuximide (Option A) is primarily indicated for treating absence seizures and may not be as effective for generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Carbamazepine (Option C) and Phenytoin (Option D) are more commonly used for focal (partial) seizures and may not cover the spectrum of seizure types present in this case. Educationally, it's important to understand the principles of selecting antiepileptic drugs based on the type of seizures a patient presents with. Tailoring the medication to the specific seizure type helps optimize treatment outcomes and minimize side effects. In pediatric cases, considerations such as age-appropriate dosing, formulation availability, and potential impact on growth and development are crucial factors in drug selection. Sodium valproate, in this scenario, offers a good balance of efficacy and safety profile for managing both absence and tonic-clonic seizures in a young child.

Question 3 of 5

The antiparkinsonian drug which acts by inhibiting the degradation of dopamine in the brain is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Selegiline. Selegiline is a selective and irreversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) enzyme. MAO-B is responsible for the breakdown of dopamine in the brain. By inhibiting this enzyme, selegiline increases dopamine levels in the brain, which helps in managing symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Option A) Carbidopa is incorrect because it doesn't directly inhibit the degradation of dopamine. Carbidopa is often used in combination with levodopa to prevent its peripheral conversion to dopamine and enhance its central effects. Option B) Amantadine is incorrect because it mainly works by increasing dopamine release from nerve endings and also has NMDA receptor antagonist properties. It does not inhibit dopamine degradation. Option D) Bromocriptine is incorrect because it is a dopamine agonist that directly stimulates dopamine receptors in the brain, rather than inhibiting dopamine degradation. Understanding how different antiparkinsonian drugs work is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when treating patients with Parkinson's disease. Knowing the mechanisms of action of these drugs helps in tailoring treatment plans to individual patient needs and optimizing therapeutic outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

A manic patient has been brought to the hospital with nonstop talking, singing, uncontrollable behavior, and apparent loss of contact with reality. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug for rapid control of his symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the most appropriate drug for rapid control of the manic symptoms exhibited by the patient is option C) Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic medication commonly used to manage acute manic episodes due to its potent antipsychotic properties. It helps to reduce agitation, aggression, and psychotic symptoms quickly. Option A) Lithium carbonate is typically used for long-term management of bipolar disorder to prevent future episodes, but it does not provide rapid control of acute manic symptoms. Option B) Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and agitation but is not the first-line treatment for manic episodes. Option D) Chloral hydrate is a sedative-hypnotic agent that is not commonly used in the management of acute mania due to its potential for toxicity and side effects. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate pharmacological treatments for psychiatric conditions like mania is crucial for healthcare professionals working in mental health settings. Knowing which medications are effective for rapid symptom control can improve patient outcomes and safety. It is important to consider the mechanism of action, side effects, and appropriateness of each medication based on the specific clinical presentation of the patient.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following statements about lithium is not correct?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the actions and effects of CNS drugs like lithium is crucial for safe and effective patient care. The correct answer, A) "It has a sedative action in normal individuals," is not correct. Lithium is not a sedative; instead, it is a mood stabilizer commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. Option B) "It controls mania but takes 1-2 weeks to produce the effect" is correct. Lithium does indeed have a delayed onset of action, typically taking 1-2 weeks to see the full therapeutic effects in managing manic episodes. Option C) "It has a prophylactic effect in recurrent unipolar depression" is incorrect. Lithium is not typically used as a first-line treatment for unipolar depression but is more commonly indicated for bipolar disorder. Option D) "It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression" is incorrect. Lithium is not commonly combined with tricyclic antidepressants due to the risk of serotonin syndrome and other potential adverse effects. In an educational context, understanding the correct use and effects of lithium is essential for healthcare providers to make informed decisions about treatment options for patients with mood disorders. This question highlights the need for precise knowledge of drug actions to ensure safe and effective pharmacological interventions.

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