Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a

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Question 1 of 5

Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a diuretic because it acts on the kidneys to increase the excretion of water and sodium from the body. This medication belongs to the thiazide diuretic class, which works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the distal convoluted tubule of the nephron. By promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, hydrochlorothiazide helps to reduce blood volume and lower blood pressure, making it a commonly prescribed medication for hypertension and edema. Option A, anti-inflammatory, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide does not possess anti-inflammatory properties. It does not target inflammatory processes in the body. Option B, antiarrhythmic, is incorrect as well because hydrochlorothiazide does not directly affect heart rhythm. Its primary mechanism of action is related to fluid and electrolyte balance rather than cardiac electrophysiology. Option D, antifungal, is also incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is not used to treat fungal infections. This medication is specific to its diuretic action and does not have any antifungal properties. Understanding the classification of hydrochlorothiazide as a diuretic is essential for pharmacology students and healthcare professionals to grasp its mechanism of action, indications, and potential side effects when prescribing or administering this medication in clinical practice.

Question 2 of 5

What is the antidote for Heparin?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding antidotes is crucial for patient safety. The correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors. Protamine sulfate is a positively charged molecule that binds to the negatively charged heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Option B, Narcan, is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not for Heparin. Option C, Romazicon, is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, not for Heparin. Option D, Naloxone, is also used for opioid overdose reversal, not for Heparin toxicity. Educationally, understanding antidotes is essential for nursing and medical students to provide safe and effective patient care. Knowing the specific antidotes for different medications can prevent adverse drug reactions and save lives in emergency situations. Remembering the antidote for Heparin, Protamine sulfate, is critical in clinical practice to manage and reverse its anticoagulant effects effectively.

Question 3 of 5

When does regular insulin typically peak?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Regular insulin typically peaks within 1 to 5 hours after administration. This peak time corresponds to the time when the insulin is exerting its maximum effect on lowering blood glucose levels. Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin that is used to manage blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. Option A (30 minutes to 2 ½ hours) is incorrect because this timeframe is too early for the peak action of regular insulin. Option B (1 to 3 hours) is also incorrect as it does not encompass the full peak range of regular insulin. Option C (6 to 14 hours) is incorrect as this timeframe is more indicative of long-acting insulins rather than regular insulin. In an educational context, understanding the peak action of insulin is crucial for healthcare professionals managing patients with diabetes. By knowing when regular insulin peaks, healthcare providers can better time insulin administration in relation to meals to achieve optimal blood glucose control. This knowledge also helps in preventing hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia episodes in patients on insulin therapy.

Question 4 of 5

What is the expected pharmacological action of propranolol?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker used in the treatment of various conditions like hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. The correct answer is D, which states that propranolol blocks stimulation of both beta1 and beta2 receptors. By blocking beta1 receptors in the heart, propranolol reduces heart rate and contractility, leading to decreased cardiac output. Blocking beta2 receptors in the lungs can result in bronchoconstriction, which is a potential side effect with non-selective beta blockers. Option A, which states that propranolol blocks stimulation of beta1 receptors only, is incorrect as propranolol affects both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Option B is incorrect because propranolol does not alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine. Option C is also incorrect as propranolol blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors, not just beta2. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological actions of medications like propranolol is crucial for nursing students and healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective patient care. Knowing the specific receptor interactions helps in predicting potential side effects and understanding the rationale behind using the medication in different clinical scenarios.

Question 5 of 5

A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's vital signs (Option A). This is crucial because the client is experiencing symptoms of nausea and weakness, which could be indicative of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication commonly used in heart failure, has a narrow therapeutic range, and symptoms of toxicity include gastrointestinal disturbances like nausea and weakness. By checking the vital signs, the nurse can assess for signs of digoxin toxicity such as bradycardia or arrhythmias, which would require immediate intervention. Requesting a dietitian consult (Option B) is not the priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are more acute and require immediate assessment. Suggesting that the client rests before eating (Option C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity, and delaying necessary interventions can be harmful. Requesting an order for an antiemetic (Option D) may help alleviate the client's symptoms temporarily but does not address the potential toxicity of digoxin. This scenario highlights the importance of prompt assessment and prioritization of interventions in clients taking medications with a narrow therapeutic index like digoxin. Nurses must be vigilant in recognizing and managing medication side effects to ensure patient safety and well-being.

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