Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

How soon after a potentially infectious bite should a person be treated for rabies?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within 24 hours. Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be initiated as soon as possible after a potentially infectious bite to prevent the virus from spreading and causing symptoms. Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent the virus from reaching the central nervous system. Waiting beyond 24 hours increases the risk of the virus reaching the brain and becoming fatal. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for 6 months, a week, or 2 weeks respectively would significantly delay treatment, allowing the virus to progress and potentially become untreatable.

Question 2 of 5

For diphtheria exotoxin is true that:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because diphtheria exotoxin is absorbed into the underlying healthy tissues and spreads throughout the body. This is due to the toxin's ability to enter the bloodstream and target various organs, causing systemic effects. Choice A is incorrect as the toxin does not stay localized at the site of infection. Choice B is incorrect as diphtheria exotoxin does not directly affect neuro-muscular transmission. Choice D is also incorrect as the toxin does spread throughout the body.

Question 3 of 5

Tularemia is also referred to as:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: rabbit fever. Tularemia is commonly known as rabbit fever due to the fact that it is often contracted through handling infected rabbits or other rodents. This zoonotic disease is caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis. Scarlet fever (A) is a streptococcal infection characterized by a rash, not related to tularemia. Strep throat (B) is a bacterial infection caused by Streptococcus bacteria and is not associated with tularemia. Cat scratch fever (C) is caused by Bartonella henselae and typically transmitted through cat scratches or bites, not related to tularemia.

Question 4 of 5

Structures and organs of the immune system are lymphatic system, lymphoid tissue, lymph nodes, thymus, spleen.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. The structures and organs listed are indeed part of the immune system. The lymphatic system transports lymph, lymphoid tissue contains immune cells, lymph nodes filter lymph, thymus matures T-cells, and spleen filters blood and produces immune cells. This comprehensive network is crucial for defending the body against pathogens. Choice B is incorrect as all listed structures are components of the immune system. Choice C is also incorrect as the statement is universally true, not situational. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is A.

Question 5 of 5

All of the following reactions are used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Agglutination test type Gruber. This is because the Gruber agglutination test is not typically used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis. The other options (A, B, C) are commonly used methods for serological identification of Y. pestis: A) Precipitation reaction involves the formation of a visible precipitate when Y. pestis antigen reacts with specific antibodies. B) Indirect hemagglutination test detects antibodies against Y. pestis by measuring the agglutination of red blood cells. C) Immunofluorescence test uses fluorescently labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens of Y. pestis. In summary, the Gruber agglutination test is not a standard method for serological identification of Yersinia pestis, unlike the other options provided.

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