ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN Questions
Question 1 of 5
How should fluid overload in a patient with heart failure be managed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering diuretics is the appropriate management for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output, thereby alleviating the fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by adding more fluid to an already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids is not specific enough to address the excess fluid in the body, and chest physiotherapy is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure patients.
Question 2 of 5
What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is crucial in ensuring that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen to meet the body's demands. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be beneficial in specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but may not be the primary intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may be necessary in cases of dehydration or shock but would not directly address respiratory distress. Providing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) can help mobilize secretions in conditions like cystic fibrosis but is not the first-line intervention for respiratory distress.
Question 3 of 5
When caring for a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, what is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When administering enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, the nurse should inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall. This site is preferred for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin to reduce the risk of bleeding or injury. Expelling air bubbles, massaging the injection site, or administering an NSAID for discomfort are not appropriate actions and could lead to complications or ineffective medication delivery.
Question 4 of 5
Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) is the most accurate test for long-term management of blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes mellitus. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information on the effectiveness of treatment and disease control. Postprandial blood glucose, glucose tolerance test, and fasting blood glucose are essential for monitoring blood glucose levels at specific times but do not offer the same insight into long-term disease management as HbA1c.