ATI RN
Exit Exam Nursing Study ATI Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Educating the patient on the importance of medication is crucial when dealing with a patient who is non-compliant with their hypertension medication. By providing information about the significance of the medication in controlling blood pressure and preventing complications, the patient may be more motivated to adhere to the prescribed treatment. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (choice B) may lead to further deterioration of the patient's condition if non-compliance continues. Referring the patient to a specialist (choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should be preceded by efforts to improve compliance. Discontinuing the medication (choice D) without addressing the non-compliance issue can have serious health consequences for the patient.
Question 2 of 9
What is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's level of consciousness?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using the Glasgow Coma Scale. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a standardized tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness by evaluating their eye response, verbal response, and motor response. This scale provides a numeric value that helps in determining the severity of brain injury or altered mental status. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while assessing the patient's orientation, checking pupillary response, and monitoring vital signs are important components of a comprehensive patient assessment, they do not specifically target the assessment of consciousness level, which is best done using the Glasgow Coma Scale.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.
Question 4 of 9
Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving insulin therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels. When a patient is receiving insulin therapy, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia, a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Monitoring potassium, calcium, or sodium levels is important for different medical conditions or treatments and is not directly related to insulin therapy.
Question 5 of 9
How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Providing education on medication is crucial when managing a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication. By educating the patient on the importance of adherence, potential side effects, and the impact of uncontrolled hypertension, healthcare professionals can help improve the patient's understanding and compliance. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but should not be the first step. Discontinuing the medication (Choice C) without exploring reasons for non-compliance and providing education can worsen the patient's condition. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) is important but should be accompanied by interventions to address non-compliance in the interim.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL.' A low serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, which is a potential complication of thyroidectomy that can lead to life-threatening consequences, such as tetany or laryngospasm. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the provider for timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments following a thyroidectomy but are not as critical as detecting and addressing hypocalcemia, which can have serious implications for the client's health.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.
Question 8 of 9
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A, avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight, is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice B, taking the medication with a meal, is not a specific requirement for furosemide administration. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not the correct advice as furosemide is a diuretic that often requires increased fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.