How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic heart failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is crucial in managing patients with chronic heart failure as it helps assess fluid balance. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to detect any sudden weight gain, which could indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This intervention helps in adjusting treatment plans promptly. Providing fluid restriction (Choice B) can be a part of managing heart failure but is not the primary intervention mentioned in the question. Administering diuretics (Choice C) is a treatment modality for heart failure but does not encompass the comprehensive approach to patient management. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not specifically address the direct assessment of fluid status as daily weight monitoring does.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it helps reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways for improved breathing. Oxygen (Choice B) can be administered after epinephrine to support oxygenation. Corticosteroids (Choice C) may be used to prevent a biphasic reaction but are not the initial intervention. Antihistamines (Choice D) can help with itching and hives but do not address the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Heart rate of 88/min.' A heart rate of 88/min in a postoperative client can be an early sign of bleeding or other complications. It is essential to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate concern. A blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg is normal, urinary output of 30 mL/hr may be adequate depending on the client's fluid status, and a hematocrit of 42% is within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing the acute respiratory distress in asthma. Corticosteroids may be used subsequently to reduce inflammation, but in the acute phase, bronchodilators take precedence. Providing supplemental oxygen is important but may not address the underlying bronchoconstriction characteristic of an asthma attack. Starting IV fluids is not a priority in managing an acute asthma attack unless indicated for specific reasons such as dehydration.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a blood pressure drop or other signs of morphine overdose should be reported, especially when using a PCA pump. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not indicate an immediate concern related to morphine administration.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for a client 1 day postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty is to apply ice packs to the affected knee. Ice packs help reduce swelling and pain in such clients. Administering aspirin is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding postoperatively. Keeping the affected leg in a dependent position can impair circulation and increase the risk of complications. Flexing the affected knee for extended periods can strain the surgical site and hinder the healing process.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should drink a sugar solution for a glucose challenge test, which is part of the nonstress test protocol during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because adequate hydration is generally recommended before the test. Choice C is incorrect as the nonstress test monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its own movements, not contractions. Choice D is incorrect as the nonstress test does not assess fetal lung maturity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should plan to assess the client placed in restraints due to aggressive behavior first. Clients in restraints require immediate attention and frequent monitoring for safety. While weight loss, medication administration, and ECT treatment are important, the client in restraints is in a critical situation that requires immediate assessment and intervention.