Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

How should a healthcare professional assess for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate way to assess fluid overload in patients with heart failure. In heart failure, the body retains excess fluid, leading to weight gain. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare professionals to track fluid retention accurately. Checking for edema (Choice B) is a valuable assessment technique, but it may not be as sensitive as monitoring daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is essential in managing heart failure, but it is not the most accurate way to assess fluid overload. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important to assess respiratory status but is not directly related to fluid overload in heart failure.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours. When a client is on TPN, it is crucial to monitor their blood glucose levels frequently to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Weighing the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (choice C) is important for infection control but does not directly relate to the client's metabolic status. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration (choice D) is not a standard practice and may introduce contaminants into the TPN solution.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.

Question 4 of 5

Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

Question 5 of 5

What is the most important nursing action when a patient has a central line?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing action when a patient has a central line is to monitor for infection. Central line-associated bloodstream infections are a serious complication that can lead to severe outcomes. Monitoring for infection involves assessing the patient for signs and symptoms such as fever, chills, and hypotension. While monitoring the central line dressing, redness, and swelling are also important aspects of care, they are secondary to monitoring for infection as the primary focus should be on preventing serious complications.

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