ATI RN
Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
How often, according to American Cancer Society recommendations, should a woman undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to American Cancer Society recommendations, a woman should undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician every year. Regular breast exams help in early detection of breast cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes and treatment options. Annual screenings are crucial in monitoring changes in breast health and detecting any abnormalities at the earliest stage possible. Therefore, it is advised that women follow this guideline to prioritize their breast health and well-being.
Question 2 of 9
A college student presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue for several days. You notice exudates on her enlarged tonsils. You do a careful lymphatic examination and notice some scattered small, mobile lymph nodes just behind her sternocleidomastoid muscles bilaterally. What group of nodes is this?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The group of lymph nodes that lie just behind the sternocleidomastoid muscles bilaterally are known as the posterior cervical lymph nodes. These lymph nodes are part of the superficial cervical lymph node chain, which is involved in draining lymph from the head and neck region. In the case described, the presence of sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudates suggests a likely upper respiratory tract infection or tonsillitis, leading to the enlargement of the nearby lymph nodes. The posterior cervical lymph nodes are commonly examined in cases of upper respiratory infections and tonsillitis due to their proximity to the area of infection and inflammation.
Question 3 of 9
Marion presents to your office with back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Marion's presentation of back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention is concerning for cauda equina syndrome. Cauda equina syndrome is a rare but serious condition caused by the compression of the bundle of nerves at the bottom of the spinal cord, known as the cauda equina. This compression can result in a variety of symptoms, including back pain, sciatica, changes in bowel and bladder function (such as constipation and urinary retention), as well as lower extremity weakness or numbness.
Question 4 of 9
Josh is a 14-year-old boy who presents with a sore throat. On examination, you notice dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on his left side with a deep breath. What does this indicate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on the left side with a deep breath is suggestive of splenomegaly. However, this finding alone is not definitive for an enlarged spleen. The size of the spleen can vary, and further examination is required to confirm if the spleen is indeed enlarged. Therefore, Option B is the most appropriate choice as it indicates that the spleen is possibly enlarged, and close attention should be paid to further examination to confirm its status. Further workup, such as imaging studies or blood tests, may be necessary to evaluate the size and function of the spleen in this case.
Question 5 of 9
On visualization of the penis he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup. What is the most likely diagnosis for this young man's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation of severe testicular pain with a red, tense scrotum, and absent cremasteric reflex on one side is highly concerning for testicular torsion. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle. The affected testicle can become ischemic and necrotic within hours, necessitating prompt diagnosis and intervention to avoid permanent damage or loss of the testicle.
Question 6 of 9
A 35-year-old archaeologist comes to your office (located in Phoenix, Arizona) for a regular skin check-up. She has just returned from her annual dig site in Greece. She has fair skin and reddish-blonde hair. She has a family history of melanoma. She has many freckles scattered across her skin. From this description, which of the following is not a risk factor for melanoma in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the given scenario, being a 35-year-old archaeologist with fair skin, a family history of melanoma, and many freckles scattered across her skin are all risk factors for melanoma. Age (choice A) is a relevant risk factor as melanoma incidence increases with age. Actinic lentigines (choice C), also known as sunspots, are precancerous skin lesions that can increase the risk of developing melanoma. Heavy sun exposure (choice D) is a significant risk factor as cumulative sun exposure over time can contribute to the development of melanoma.
Question 7 of 9
A 73-year-old nurse comes to your office for evaluation of new onset of tremors. She is not on any medications and does not take herbs or supplements. She has no chronic medical conditions. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She walks into the examination room with slow movements and shuffling steps. She has decreased facial mobility and a blunt expression, without any changes in hair distribution on her face. Based on this description, what is the most likely reason for the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation of new onset tremors, slow movements with shuffling steps (bradykinesia), decreased facial mobility, and blunt expression are characteristic features of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement, typically presenting with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The presence of these symptoms in this patient, along with the absence of any other medical conditions or medication use, points toward a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Other conditions like Cushing's syndrome, nephrotic syndrome, and myxedema are unlikely based on the patient's clinical presentation.
Question 8 of 9
Chris is a 20-year-old college student who has had abdominal pain for 3 days. It started at his umbilicus and was associated with nausea and vomiting. He was unable to find a comfortable position. Yesterday, the pain became more severe and constant. Now, he hesitates to walk, because any motion makes the pain much worse. It is localized just medial and inferior to his iliac crest on the right. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation is highly suggestive of appendicitis, especially given the migration of pain from the periumbilical region to the right lower quadrant (just medial and inferior to the iliac crest). The worsening of pain with motion, along with associated symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fever, are typical features of appendicitis. The classic presentation of appendicitis is pain starting around the umbilicus (due to visceral innervation) and then shifting to the right lower quadrant (due to irritation of the parietal peritoneum). Surgical intervention is usually required promptly to prevent complications like perforation, which can lead to peritonitis and sepsis.
Question 9 of 9
His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rectal polyp is a growth that originates from the inner lining of the rectum and protrudes into the rectal canal. It may present as a soft, smooth, nontender mass on digital rectal examination. Rectal polyps are usually benign, but some may have the potential to become cancerous if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to evaluate and remove polyps to prevent complications. In this case, the description of a pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum is most suggestive of a rectal polyp.