ATI RN
Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
How much does cardiovascular risk increase for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Research studies have shown that for every increment of 20 mm Hg in systolic blood pressure and 10 mm Hg in diastolic blood pressure, the cardiovascular risk approximately doubles. Therefore, the cardiovascular risk increases by 50% for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure. This underlines the importance of maintaining healthy blood pressure levels to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases.
Question 2 of 9
When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, which of the following is a likely etiology?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, it is suggestive of bronchitis. Bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchial tubes, often due to a viral infection, leading to the production of excess mucus. The characteristic sounds such as crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi can be heard on auscultation due to the presence of mucus in the airways. The act of coughing helps to clear the mucus from the airways, resulting in the temporary resolution of these abnormal sounds. In contrast, asthma, cystic fibrosis, and heart failure are not typically associated with crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi that clear with a cough.
Question 3 of 9
Very sensitive methods for detecting hearing loss include which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Audiometric testing is a very sensitive method for detecting hearing loss. It involves a series of tests that measure a person's ability to hear sounds at various frequencies and volumes. These tests can detect even subtle changes in hearing ability and provide detailed information on the type and degree of hearing loss. The whisper test and finger rub test are basic screening tests and are not as sensitive or comprehensive as audiometric testing. The tuning fork test is also used in evaluating hearing loss, but it is not as accurate or sensitive as audiometric testing. Overall, audiometric testing is considered the gold standard for diagnosing hearing loss due to its high sensitivity and ability to provide detailed information on the individual's hearing capabilities.
Question 4 of 9
His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rectal polyp is a growth that originates from the inner lining of the rectum and protrudes into the rectal canal. It may present as a soft, smooth, nontender mass on digital rectal examination. Rectal polyps are usually benign, but some may have the potential to become cancerous if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to evaluate and remove polyps to prevent complications. In this case, the description of a pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum is most suggestive of a rectal polyp.
Question 5 of 9
Mrs. Hill is a 28-year-old African-American with a history of SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus). She has noticed a raised, dark red rash on her legs. When you press on the rash, it doesn't blanch. What would you tell her regarding her rash?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The raised, dark red rash that does not blanch when pressed on, typically known as erythema nodosum, is a common skin manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Given Mrs. Hill's history of SLE, it is likely that her rash is related to her autoimmune condition rather than an exposure to a chemical or an allergic reaction. It is important for her to discuss this new symptom with her healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of her lupus.
Question 6 of 9
On visualization of the penis he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup. What is the most likely diagnosis for this young man's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation of severe testicular pain with a red, tense scrotum, and absent cremasteric reflex on one side is highly concerning for testicular torsion. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle. The affected testicle can become ischemic and necrotic within hours, necessitating prompt diagnosis and intervention to avoid permanent damage or loss of the testicle.
Question 7 of 9
How often, according to American Cancer Society recommendations, should a woman undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to American Cancer Society recommendations, a woman should undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician every year. Regular breast exams help in early detection of breast cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes and treatment options. Annual screenings are crucial in monitoring changes in breast health and detecting any abnormalities at the earliest stage possible. Therefore, it is advised that women follow this guideline to prioritize their breast health and well-being.
Question 8 of 9
A 68-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency room for shortness of breath. You are concerned about a cardiac cause and measure his jugular venous pressure (JVP). It is elevated. Which one of the following conditions is a potential cause of elevated JVP?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Constrictive pericarditis is a condition where the pericardium becomes thickened and rigid, impairing diastolic filling of the heart. This leads to an increase in venous pressure, including the jugular venous pressure (JVP). The elevated JVP in constrictive pericarditis is a result of impaired ventricular filling rather than forward failure seen in heart failure. Mitral stenosis can lead to an increased JVP due to elevated left atrial pressure, but constrictive pericarditis is a more common cause of elevated JVP in this scenario. Aortic aneurysm is not typically associated with elevated JVP.
Question 9 of 9
Chris is a 20-year-old college student who has had abdominal pain for 3 days. It started at his umbilicus and was associated with nausea and vomiting. He was unable to find a comfortable position. Yesterday, the pain became more severe and constant. Now, he hesitates to walk, because any motion makes the pain much worse. It is localized just medial and inferior to his iliac crest on the right. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation is highly suggestive of appendicitis, especially given the migration of pain from the periumbilical region to the right lower quadrant (just medial and inferior to the iliac crest). The worsening of pain with motion, along with associated symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fever, are typical features of appendicitis. The classic presentation of appendicitis is pain starting around the umbilicus (due to visceral innervation) and then shifting to the right lower quadrant (due to irritation of the parietal peritoneum). Surgical intervention is usually required promptly to prevent complications like perforation, which can lead to peritonitis and sepsis.