ATI RN
Health Promotion Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
How many words are in a toddler’s receptive language at 24 months of age?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) 1200 words. Toddlers at 24 months of age typically have a receptive vocabulary of around 1200 words. This is an important developmental milestone as they begin to understand and comprehend a wide range of words and concepts. Option A) 500 words is too low for a toddler's receptive language at 24 months. By this age, children have typically acquired a larger vocabulary. Option C) 2400 words and Option D) 3600 words are too high for a toddler's receptive language at 24 months. While language development varies among children, these numbers are beyond the average range for this age group. Understanding the typical language milestones for toddlers is crucial for educators, caregivers, and healthcare professionals to assess children's development and provide appropriate support and interventions if needed. By recognizing the expected language abilities at different ages, professionals can identify potential delays or issues early on and provide targeted assistance to promote optimal language development.
Question 2 of 5
A school nurse is planning to assess the visual acuity of the preschool students at the school. Which of the following tests would be used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and health promotion, understanding the rationale behind visual acuity testing in preschool students is crucial for early detection of potential vision issues. The correct answer is A) Snellen Screening test. The Snellen test is specifically designed to assess visual acuity by measuring how well a person can see at a distance. In preschool students, this test is valuable as it helps identify any refractive errors or vision problems early on. By using a standardized chart with letters of varying sizes, the nurse can determine the child's visual acuity and refer them for further evaluation if needed. In contrast, options B, C, and D are not suitable for assessing visual acuity in this context. The Denver Eye Screening test is more comprehensive and assesses various aspects of eye health beyond just visual acuity. Ishihara’s test is designed to test for color blindness, not visual acuity. The cover test is used to assess eye alignment and coordination, not visual acuity specifically. Educationally, understanding the appropriate use of each test is essential for healthcare professionals working with children to ensure accurate assessments and early interventions when necessary. The ability to differentiate between tests based on their specific purposes is a fundamental skill in providing quality healthcare services to pediatric populations.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse suspects a 5-year-old child has asthma. Which information from the child’s past medical history is a risk factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, option B, "The child had respiratory infections as an infant," is the correct answer as it is a risk factor for developing asthma. Respiratory infections in infancy can lead to airway inflammation and hypersensitivity, predisposing the child to asthma later in life. This early insult to the respiratory system can contribute to the development of asthma due to airway remodeling and increased reactivity. Option A, "The child was breast-fed," is not a risk factor for asthma. In fact, breastfeeding is associated with a decreased risk of developing asthma due to the immunological benefits and protective factors present in breast milk. Option C, "The child was born via a C-section," is not a direct risk factor for asthma development. While the mode of delivery can influence the infant's microbiome and immune system development, it is not a well-established risk factor for asthma. Option D, "The child had pressure equalizer tubes as an infant," is not a risk factor for asthma. Pressure equalizer tubes are typically used to treat recurrent ear infections and do not directly impact the development of asthma. Educationally, understanding risk factors for asthma is crucial for healthcare providers to identify high-risk individuals, implement preventive strategies, and provide appropriate management early on. Recognizing the impact of early respiratory infections on asthma development highlights the importance of early intervention and monitoring in children with a history of such infections.
Question 4 of 5
The school nurse conducting an in-service program for teachers is asked about general growth and development of school-age children. Which of the following statements would be the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D) “Overall growth in school-age children is slower than during infancy and adolescence.” This response is the best because it accurately reflects the typical growth pattern of school-age children. During infancy, there is rapid growth and development, while adolescence is marked by another growth spurt. School-age children, typically between 6 to 12 years old, experience a period of slower, more steady growth compared to these other stages. Option A is incorrect because blood pressure readings in children do not match those of adults at age 11. Children's blood pressure values are lower than those of adults. Option B is incorrect as it does not directly address growth and development but focuses on caloric intake. Option C is incorrect as school-age children generally have developed coordination and balance skills by this age, and while supervision is important, it is not due to difficulties in these areas. In an educational context, understanding the typical growth patterns of school-age children is crucial for educators and school nurses as it helps them provide appropriate support and interventions to promote the overall well-being and development of students. This knowledge can aid in identifying potential issues early and implementing strategies to support healthy growth and development.
Question 5 of 5
A teenager has been using laxatives for constipation but shows signs of erosion of tooth enamel. Which disorder is the client most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Bulimia nervosa. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors such as laxative abuse to prevent weight gain. The erosion of tooth enamel, known as dental erosion, is a common consequence of frequent vomiting or laxative abuse seen in individuals with bulimia nervosa. Option B) Binge eating disorder is incorrect because although it involves recurrent episodes of binge eating, individuals with this disorder do not engage in compensatory behaviors like laxative abuse. Option C) Idiopathic constipation is unlikely in this case as the erosion of tooth enamel is not typically associated with this condition. Option D) Irritable bowel syndrome does not typically lead to the use of laxatives in the manner described in the question, making it an unlikely choice. From an educational perspective, this question highlights the importance of recognizing the physical manifestations of eating disorders and understanding the potential consequences of behaviors like laxative abuse. It emphasizes the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in assessing and addressing the underlying issues contributing to such symptoms in adolescents.