ATI RN
microbiology an introduction test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
How is detected viral multiplication in cell culture
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (A and B both). In viral multiplication, the presence of a specific cytopathic effect (CPE) in cell culture indicates viral replication. This is detected visually through changes in cell morphology. Additionally, immunofluorescence detection methods can be used to detect viral antigens within infected cells, confirming viral multiplication. Options C is incorrect as viral colonies are not typically used to detect viral multiplication in cell culture. Option B alone is not sufficient as it only focuses on immunofluorescence detection, while option A alone may not always be specific. Therefore, the combination of A and B provides a more comprehensive and accurate detection method for viral multiplication in cell culture.
Question 2 of 9
The sample used to proving epidemic meningitis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) is the sample used for proving epidemic meningitis. It should be transported at 37°C to maintain its integrity. Blood and nasopharyngeal secretions are not typically used for diagnosing meningitis. Choice B, feces, is unrelated to the diagnosis of meningitis. Choice C, CSF transported at +4°C, is incorrect as it should be transported at 37°C to prevent degradation of the sample. Therefore, A is the correct choice for proving epidemic meningitis due to the specificity of the sample and the proper transport conditions.
Question 3 of 9
Resident microflora is found in
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: urethra. Resident microflora refers to the normal, beneficial bacteria that inhabit a specific area of the body without causing harm. The urethra is one of the locations where resident microflora are commonly found. These bacteria play a vital role in maintaining a healthy balance and preventing harmful pathogens from colonizing the urethra. Blood (A), lung (B), and cerebro-spinal fluid (D) are not typical locations for resident microflora as these areas are usually sterile or have very limited microbial presence to prevent infections.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following bacteria produce a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. This bacterium produces Shiga toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating the ribosomes. Shigella dysenteriae is known to cause severe gastrointestinal infections. Choice B: Escherichia coli typically does not produce toxins that inhibit protein synthesis. E. coli strains may produce toxins that cause diarrhea. Choice C: Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin toxin, which affects the nervous system but does not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D: Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins like enterotoxins and exotoxins but these toxins do not directly inhibit protein synthesis.
Question 5 of 9
A child presented with foul-smelling diarrhea. Stool microscopy revealed trophozoites with two nuclei and flagella. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that causes foul-smelling diarrhea. The trophozoites of Giardia lamblia have two nuclei and flagella, which are characteristic features seen on stool microscopy. The presence of these specific features helps differentiate Giardia lamblia from the other options. Entamoeba histolytica (B) typically presents with one nucleus and lacks flagella. Trichomonas vaginalis (C) is a sexually transmitted parasite with a different morphology. Balantidium coli (D) is a ciliated parasite, not flagellated like Giardia lamblia.
Question 6 of 9
The patient has developed pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is marked, the tongue is coated by white coating. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodules are determined in the axillary area. The skin is erythematous and glistering over the lymphatic nodules. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is D: Tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. The symptoms described align with tularemia, such as pain in axillary area, fever, shaky gait, coated tongue, frequent pulse, painful lymphatic nodules, and erythematous skin over nodules. The key features pointing towards tularemia are the presence of lymphadenitis in the axillary area and the erythematous, glistering skin over the nodules, which are characteristic of ulceroglandular tularemia. Bubonic plague (A) presents with painful, swollen lymph nodes called buboes but typically lacks the erythematous skin findings. Acute purulent lymphadenitis (B) usually presents with pus-filled lymph nodes but does not typically cause shaky gait or coated tongue. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a term for Hodgkin's lymphoma, which does not
Question 7 of 9
Molds belong to which of the following groups of eukaryotic organisms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fungi. Molds are a type of fungi, which are eukaryotic organisms characterized by having cell walls made of chitin. Fungi are distinct from protozoans (single-celled eukaryotes), archaea (prokaryotes), and algae (photosynthetic eukaryotes). Fungi, including molds, obtain nutrients through absorption and play crucial roles in decomposition and nutrient cycling. Therefore, molds belong to the group of eukaryotic organisms known as fungi.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presented with a painful, swollen lymph node, and bacteremia. A Gram-negative rod with a characteristic safety pin appearance was observed. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative rod with safety pin appearance indicates bipolar staining. Step 2: Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative rod causing bubonic plague. Step 3: Y. pestis has bipolar staining due to its unique F1 capsule. Step 4: The swollen lymph node and bacteremia are consistent with bubonic plague. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Summary: - B: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - C: Brucella melitensis causes brucellosis, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - D: Pasteurella multocida causes animal bites infections, not characterized by a safety pin appearance.
Question 9 of 9
During bacteriological examination of the purulent discharge obtained from a postoperative wound an inoculation on meat infusion agar has been performed. The inoculation has resulted in large colorless mucous colonies that in 24 hours with exposure to sunlight developed green-blue pigmentation and smell of honey or jasmine. Bacterioscopy revealed gram-negative lophotrichea. What bacterial culture is contained in purulent discharge?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium known for its green-blue pigmentation and sweet, fruity odor. The large colorless mucous colonies that develop green-blue pigmentation and honey or jasmine smell point towards Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The bacterioscopy revealing gram-negative lophotrichea further supports this identification. Proteus vulgaris and Klebsiella osaenae do not typically exhibit the described characteristics. Streptomyces griseus is a soil bacterium known for its antibiotic production and is not commonly associated with wound infections.