ATI RN
Rn Vital Signs Assessment ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
How does the heart physiologically compensate for increased end-diastolic volume?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased systolic contractility. When the end-diastolic volume increases, the heart compensates by increasing systolic contractility to maintain cardiac output. This allows the heart to pump out more blood with each contraction, ensuring adequate circulation. Increased peripheral resistance (A) would lead to increased afterload, making it harder for the heart to pump blood. Increased respiratory rate (B) is not a direct compensation for increased end-diastolic volume. Decreased systolic contractility (D) would further compromise cardiac output, worsening the situation.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is a contraindication for spinal traction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osteopenia. Osteopenia is a contraindication for spinal traction because it indicates decreased bone density, increasing the risk of fractures during traction. Bursitis (A), cervical radiculopathy (B), and muscle spasm (D) are not contraindications for spinal traction as they can potentially benefit from this treatment modality.
Question 3 of 5
A patient complains of epistaxis. Which other cause should be considered?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Epistaxis refers to nosebleeds, commonly due to nasal trauma or dry air. 2. Hematemesis refers to vomiting blood, which can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding. 3. Considering hematemesis as a cause of epistaxis is important to rule out more serious conditions like gastrointestinal ulcers or cancer. 4. Intracranial hemorrhage (choice A) is less likely as it presents with neurological symptoms. 5. Intestinal hemorrhage (choice C) is less likely to cause epistaxis. 6. Hematoma of the nasal septum (choice D) may cause epistaxis but is less common than gastrointestinal bleeding. Summary: Hematemesis is the correct answer as it is a more common and relevant cause of epistaxis compared to the other choices, which are less likely and not directly related to nasal bleeding.
Question 4 of 5
Mrs. LaFarge is a 60-year-old who presents with urinary incontinence. She is unable to get to the bathroom quickly enough when she senses the need to urinate. She has normal mobility. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urge incontinence. This is because Mrs. LaFarge is described as having urgency (not being able to get to the bathroom quickly) which is characteristic of urge incontinence. Stress incontinence (choice A) is associated with leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure. Overflow incontinence (choice C) is characterized by incomplete bladder emptying leading to constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence (choice D) is due to physical or cognitive impairments that prevent a person from reaching the toilet in time. In this case, the inability to get to the bathroom quickly is more indicative of urge incontinence.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to percuss the abdomen of a patient. The purpose of the percussion is to assess the ______ of the underlying tissue.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Density. Percussion helps assess the density of underlying tissues by producing different sounds based on the density of the tissue being tapped. Turgor (A) is assessed by skin elasticity, texture (B) refers to the feel of the skin surface, and consistency (D) is the uniformity of a substance. Density is the most relevant choice for assessing underlying tissue characteristics through percussion.