ATI RN
Oxygenation Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
How does ozone protect us?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A) It absorbs ultraviolet radiation. Ozone is a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms (O3) that forms a protective layer in the Earth's stratosphere. This layer, often referred to as the ozone layer, plays a crucial role in shielding life on Earth from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation coming from the sun. When UV radiation interacts with ozone molecules, it is absorbed and converted into heat energy, preventing it from reaching the Earth's surface in damaging amounts. Explanation of why the other options are incorrect: - B) It reflects visible light: Ozone does not reflect visible light but instead absorbs UV radiation. - C) It traps infrared heat: Ozone primarily absorbs UV radiation, not infrared heat. - D) It neutralizes air pollutants: While ozone at ground level can react with certain air pollutants, in the stratosphere, its main role is to absorb UV radiation. Educational context: Understanding the protective role of ozone in the atmosphere is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses, as it relates to environmental health and the impact of UV radiation on human health. By knowing that ozone absorbs harmful UV radiation, nurses can educate patients on the importance of sun protection to prevent skin damage, eye problems, and even skin cancer caused by excessive UV exposure. Additionally, this knowledge is vital in promoting environmental awareness and advocating for measures to protect the ozone layer and mitigate the effects of ozone depletion.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment would the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Pulse decreased from 100 to 80 beats/min. Beta blockers are medications that work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate. Therefore, a drop in pulse rate after administering a beta blocker is an expected physiological response. Option A) Blood pressure increased from 98/42 to 132/60 mm Hg is incorrect because beta blockers often lead to a decrease in blood pressure due to their effect on the heart. Option B) Respiratory rate decreased from 25 to 14 breaths/min is incorrect as beta blockers primarily affect heart rate and not respiratory rate. Option C) Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96% is incorrect as beta blockers do not directly impact oxygen saturation levels. Educationally, understanding the pharmacological effects of medications like beta blockers is crucial for nurses to assess and manage patient responses accurately. By knowing the expected outcomes and potential side effects of medications, nurses can provide safe and effective care to their patients. This knowledge also helps in recognizing and responding to any unexpected or adverse reactions promptly.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a woman receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse assesses her deep tendon reflexes at 0 and 1+. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Hold the magnesium sulfate. Deep tendon reflexes of 0 to 1+ indicate possible magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is a medication commonly used to prevent seizures in patients with preeclampsia. High levels of magnesium can lead to respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and neuromuscular blockade. Therefore, it is critical for the nurse to recognize the signs of magnesium toxicity, such as diminished reflexes, and take immediate action by withholding the medication to prevent further complications. Option B) Ask the provider to order a 24-hour UA is incorrect because urinary analysis does not directly address the issue of magnesium toxicity indicated by the abnormal reflexes. Option C) Assess the woman's temperature is incorrect as temperature assessment does not provide information specifically related to magnesium toxicity. Option D) Take the woman's blood pressure is incorrect as blood pressure monitoring is important in the care of a patient receiving magnesium sulfate but is not the priority when abnormal reflexes suggest potential toxicity. Educational Context: Understanding the importance of monitoring for signs of magnesium toxicity is crucial for nurses caring for patients receiving this medication. Recognizing and responding promptly to these signs can prevent serious complications and ensure patient safety. Nurses must be knowledgeable about the side effects and potential toxicities of medications they administer to provide safe and effective care to their patients.
Question 4 of 5
Which finding supports the nursing diagnosis of Decreased Cardiac Output for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the correct answer is option B) Urine output decreases from 30 mL/hr to 25 mL/hr. Decreased cardiac output in ARDS can lead to reduced kidney perfusion, resulting in a decrease in urine output below the normal range of 30 mL/hr. This finding indicates inadequate cardiac function to adequately perfuse the kidneys, supporting the nursing diagnosis of Decreased Cardiac Output. Option A) Blood pressure improves from 90/50 to 100/60 mmHg suggests an improvement in perfusion pressure, which would not support a diagnosis of Decreased Cardiac Output. Option C) Oxygen saturation increases from 88% to 92% indicates improved oxygenation, not cardiac output. Option D) Pulse decreases from 120 beats/min to 110 beats/min could suggest a decreased workload on the heart, but it does not directly reflect decreased cardiac output. Educationally, understanding the relationship between cardiac output and kidney perfusion is crucial for nurses caring for patients with ARDS. Monitoring urine output can provide valuable information about cardiac function and tissue perfusion. Recognizing the significance of urinary changes in the context of cardiac output can guide nursing interventions and improve patient outcomes in critical care settings.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is planning care for a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which interventions should the nurse select to meet nutritional needs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of caring for a client with COPD, selecting small, frequent meals (Option A) is the most appropriate intervention to meet nutritional needs. This choice is correct because it helps reduce the energy demand associated with eating, which in turn aids in minimizing the strain on the respiratory system and breathing effort. By opting for small, frequent meals, the client can maintain adequate nutrition without overwhelming their respiratory function. Options B, C, and D are incorrect choices for meeting the nutritional needs of a client with COPD. Restricting protein intake (Option B) is not recommended as protein is essential for maintaining muscle strength, which is crucial for respiratory function in COPD. Encouraging fasting (Option C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and energy depletion, both of which can worsen the condition. Limiting fluid intake (Option D) can cause dehydration and thickening of respiratory secretions, making breathing more difficult for COPD patients. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind selecting small, frequent meals for clients with COPD is vital for nurses and healthcare providers. It highlights the importance of tailoring nutritional interventions to support respiratory function and overall well-being in individuals with chronic respiratory conditions. This knowledge equips healthcare professionals to provide holistic care that addresses not only medical needs but also nutritional considerations to optimize patient outcomes.