ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
How does maternal obesity affect pregnancy outcomes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increases risk of gestational diabetes. Maternal obesity can lead to insulin resistance, increasing the likelihood of developing gestational diabetes during pregnancy. This condition can have negative effects on both the mother and the baby. B: Miscarriage is not directly linked to maternal obesity but can be influenced by other factors. C: Maternal obesity is not a direct cause of anemia during pregnancy. Anemia is usually related to iron deficiency or other factors. D: Maternal obesity is actually associated with an increased risk of preterm labor, not a reduced chance. This is due to various complications such as hypertension and preeclampsia.
Question 2 of 9
How does maternal obesity affect pregnancy outcomes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increases risk of gestational diabetes. Maternal obesity can lead to insulin resistance, increasing the likelihood of developing gestational diabetes during pregnancy. This condition can have negative effects on both the mother and the baby. B: Miscarriage is not directly linked to maternal obesity but can be influenced by other factors. C: Maternal obesity is not a direct cause of anemia during pregnancy. Anemia is usually related to iron deficiency or other factors. D: Maternal obesity is actually associated with an increased risk of preterm labor, not a reduced chance. This is due to various complications such as hypertension and preeclampsia.
Question 3 of 9
A major predisposing factor to cardiac disease in pregnancy includes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rheumatic heart disease. This is because rheumatic heart disease is a known risk factor for cardiac complications during pregnancy due to the strain pregnancy places on the heart. Choice B, notable peripheral edema, is a symptom of heart failure but not a predisposing factor. Choice C, easy fatiguability, is a non-specific symptom and not a direct predisposing factor. Choice D, basal crepitation, is a sign of possible lung pathology and not directly related to cardiac disease in pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly relates to an increased risk of cardiac issues during pregnancy.
Question 4 of 9
Haematinics, dietary advice, and close surveillance are management plans for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Moderate anaemia. Haematinics, dietary advice, and close surveillance are appropriate management plans for moderate anaemia to improve iron levels and overall health. For mild anaemia, dietary changes alone may be sufficient. Severe anaemia often requires more aggressive treatments like blood transfusions. Anaemia prevention focuses on strategies to avoid developing anaemia rather than managing an existing case.
Question 5 of 9
Excessive traction and twisting of the neck during delivery of the shoulders in SVD could lead to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erb’s palsy. Excessive traction and twisting of the neck during shoulder delivery can stretch or tear the brachial plexus nerves, leading to Erb’s palsy. This results in weakness or paralysis of the arm. Radial palsy (B) involves injury to the radial nerve, not typically caused by shoulder delivery. Torticollis (C) is a condition characterized by neck muscle contracture, not caused by excessive traction during delivery. Ecchymosis (D) refers to bruising and is not directly related to neck traction during delivery. In summary, Erb’s palsy is the correct choice due to the specific nerve injury pattern associated with excessive neck traction during shoulder delivery.
Question 6 of 9
The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (GCS of 3 to 8 and hypotension) because hypotension is not a specific indication for intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring according to the Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines. The rationale is that hypotension is a systemic issue affecting overall perfusion, whereas ICP monitoring is specifically for assessing intracranial dynamics. A, C, and D are incorrect choices because they all involve conditions that could potentially indicate increased intracranial pressure and the need for monitoring. A) Abnormal head CT indicates structural brain injury, C) age > 40 is a risk factor for poor outcomes after traumatic brain injury, and D) bradycardia can be a sign of increased ICP affecting brainstem function. Therefore, these conditions warrant ICP monitoring according to guidelines.
Question 7 of 9
Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material T. O. is a 44-year-old female patient who presents for evaluation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain. She is clear about the onset, which was profound and occurred approximately one hour ago. She denies that the onset had any relationship to food or eating, and she denies nausea or vomiting. On examination, she is lying on her right side with her hips and knees flexed to draw her knees to her chest. Vital signs are stable, but examination reveals involuntary guarding. The abdomen is painful and tympanic to percussion in all quadrants. CBC reveals a white blood cell count of 15,600L. The AGACNP suspects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The patient's sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, unaffected by food intake, along with guarding and elevated white blood cell count, are indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient's positioning (knees to chest) suggests relief from pain, which is characteristic of pancreatitis. A dissecting aortic aneurysm (choice A) typically presents with tearing chest or back pain. Perforated peptic ulcer (choice C) would present with a history of chronic ulcer symptoms. Mallory-Weiss tear (choice D) presents with a history of recent vomiting. Therefore, based on the patient's presentation and findings, acute pancreatitis is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 8 of 9
Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amount of amniotic fluid exceeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (3000 ml) because polyhydramnios is defined as an excessive amount of amniotic fluid, typically exceeding 2000-2500 ml. A level of 3000 ml is commonly used as a cutoff point for clinical diagnosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall below the threshold typically considered diagnostic for polyhydramnios. Answer A (1500 ml) is too low, while choices C (1900 ml) and D (2500 ml) are below or at the lower end of the range typically associated with polyhydramnios. Therefore, the most appropriate threshold for diagnosing polyhydramnios is when the amount of amniotic fluid exceeds 3000 ml.
Question 9 of 9
What are the risks of cesarean sections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the choices (A, B, and C) are risks associated with cesarean sections. Infection can occur at the incision site, blood loss is a common concern during surgery, and cesarean sections typically have a longer recovery time compared to vaginal delivery. Therefore, all of these risks are potential complications of undergoing a cesarean section. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect individually because they only represent a subset of the risks associated with cesarean sections, while choice D encompasses all potential risks.