ATI RN
Health Assessment and Physical Examination Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
His abdominal examination is normal. Visualization of the anus shows no masses, inflammation, or fissures. Digital rectal examination reveals a warm, boggy, tender prostate. No discrete masses are felt and there is no blood on the glove. The scrotum and penis appear normal. Urinalysis shows moderate amounts of white blood cells and bacteria. What disorder of the anus, prostate, or rectum best describes this situation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prostatitis is the most likely disorder based on the symptoms described. The warm, boggy, tender prostate upon digital rectal examination, along with the presence of moderate white blood cells and bacteria in the urinalysis, suggests an inflammatory condition of the prostate. In this case, there are no signs of masses or blood in the rectal examination, which would be more indicative of prostate cancer. Epididymitis typically presents with symptoms involving the scrotum and may be associated with testicular pain and swelling, which are not described in this scenario. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland that typically presents with symptoms of urinary urgency, frequency, and nocturia, rather than the inflammatory signs seen in this case.
Question 2 of 5
A 72-year-old teacher comes to a skilled nursing facility for rehabilitation after being in the hospital for 6 weeks. She was treated for sepsis and respiratory failure and had to be on the ventilator for 3 weeks. You are completing your initial assessment and are evaluating her skin condition. On her sacrum there is full-thickness skin loss that is 5 cm in diameter, with damage to the subcutaneous tissue. The underlying muscle is not affected. You diagnose this as a pressure ulcer. What is the stage of this ulcer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A stage 3 pressure ulcer involves full-thickness skin loss with damage and necrosis of the subcutaneous tissue, but the underlying muscle is not affected. In this case, the description of the full-thickness skin loss with involvement of the subcutaneous tissue but not the muscle corresponds to a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Stage 1 involves intact skin with non-blanchable redness, stage 2 involves partial-thickness skin loss with a shallow open ulcer, and stage 4 involves full-thickness tissue loss with the involvement of muscle, bone, or supporting structures.
Question 3 of 5
Mrs. Fletcher comes to your office with unilateral pain during chewing, which is chronic. She does not have facial tenderness or tenderness of the scalp. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mrs. Fletcher's symptoms of unilateral pain during chewing, which is chronic, without facial tenderness or tenderness of the scalp are more suggestive of temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome rather than other conditions listed. TMJ syndrome is characterized by pain and dysfunction of the jaw muscles and the joints that connect the jaw to the skull. The pain is often worsened by chewing or opening the mouth widely. In this case, the absence of facial tenderness or signs of temporal arteritis makes these conditions less likely. Trigeminal neuralgia typically presents with sudden, severe facial pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. Tumor of the mandible would likely present with other symptoms such as swelling, bone destruction, or difficulty with mouth opening and chewing. Temporal arteritis usually presents with symptoms such as headache, scalp tenderness, and visual disturbances. Given Mrs. Fletcher's presentation,
Question 4 of 5
A patient is concerned about a dark skin lesion on her anterolateral abdomen. It has not changed, and there is no discharge or bleeding. On examination there is a medium brown circular lesion on the anterolateral wall of the abdomen. It is soft, has regular borders, is evenly pigmented, and is about 7 mm in diameter. What is this lesion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Given the description provided, the lesion appears to be a dermatofibroma. Dermatofibromas are common benign skin lesions that typically present as a firm, solitary nodule on the skin. They commonly occur on the lower extremities but can also be found on the trunk. The characteristics of a dermatofibroma include being firm to the touch, having regular borders, being evenly pigmented, and a diameter typically less than 1 cm to 2 cm. They are usually painless and do not change significantly over time.
Question 5 of 5
You ask a patient to draw a clock. He fills in all the numbers on the right half of the circle. What do you suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Filling in all the numbers on just one side of the clock when asked to draw a clock suggests a visual field deficit, typically seen in hemianopsia. Hemianopsia is a visual impairment where half of the visual field is lost due to neurological damage or injury, such as a stroke. This causes the individual to have difficulty perceiving or attending to objects in the affected visual field. In this case, the patient's right visual field may be affected, leading to the specific pattern of filling numbers on the right half of the clock. It is essential to further assess and refer the patient for a complete visual field evaluation and neurological examination.
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