Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

mcgraw hill microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: HSV-1. Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by HSV-1 due to its preference for infecting oral mucosa. HSV-2 typically causes genital herpes. HSV-6 and HSV-7 are less common and not typically associated with oral infections. Therefore, based on the typical presentation and epidemiology of herpes simplex infections, HSV-1 is the most likely cause in this scenario.

Question 2 of 5

Most reliable test for detection of acute hepatitis A infection is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA test for IgM anti-HAV in serum and HAV-Ag in stools. This test is the most reliable for detecting acute hepatitis A infection because IgM antibodies are produced early in the infection, indicating an active infection. Detection of HAV antigen in stools also confirms active viral shedding. A: Western blot assay for IgG anti-HAV in serum is not the most reliable for acute infection detection as IgG antibodies are produced later in the infection and indicate past exposure or immunity. C: ELISA test for IgG anti-HAV in serum is not the most reliable for acute infection detection as IgG antibodies are produced later in the infection and indicate past exposure or immunity. D: None of the above is incorrect as option B is the most appropriate choice for detecting acute hepatitis A infection.

Question 3 of 5

Transcription of viral nucleic acid to mRNA is not needed in the case of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive strand RNA viruses. These viruses have RNA genomes that can be directly translated by host ribosomes without the need for transcription. In contrast, single-strand DNA and double-strand DNA viruses require transcription to generate mRNA for translation. Choice A is incorrect as there is a correct answer. Choice B and C are incorrect because both single-strand DNA and double-strand DNA viruses require transcription for mRNA synthesis.

Question 4 of 5

A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be detected in the umbilical cord?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced in response to an infection, indicating an active or recent infection. In the case of a rubella virus infection in a fetus, IgM antibodies can be detected in the umbilical cord blood, confirming the presence of the virus. IgA antibodies are mainly found in mucosal areas, IgG antibodies indicate past infection or immunity, and IgD antibodies play a role in B cell activation but are not typically detected in this context.

Question 5 of 5

A patient has wound abscess. Bacteriological examination of the wound content revealed a gram- negative bacillus which forms semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance on the beef-extract agar. Culture has a specific odor of violets or jasmine. What type of pathogen was isolated from the patient's wound?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative bacillus indicates P. aeruginosa, known for causing wound infections. Step 2: Semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance are characteristic of P. aeruginosa. Step 3: Specific odor of violets or jasmine is a unique feature of P. aeruginosa. Therefore, the correct answer is A: P. aeruginosa. Summary: - B: P. vulgaris typically forms yellow colonies and doesn't have the characteristic odor. - C: S. aureus forms creamy white colonies, not blue-green, and has a distinct odor. - D: S. pyogenes forms grayish-white colonies and doesn't have the unique characteristics described.

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