ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Her urine output for the past 2 hours totaled only 40 mL. She arrived from s urgery to repair an aortic aneurysm 4 hours ago and remains on mechanical ventilation. In the past 2 hours, her heart rate has increased from 80 to 100 beats per minute and he r blood pressure has decreased from 128/82 to 100/70 mm Hg. She is being given an infusaiboirnb .coofm n/toesrtm al saline at 100 mL per hour. Her right atrial pressure through the subclavian cen tral line is low at 3 mm Hg. Her urine is concentrated. Her BUN and creatinine levels have been stable and in normal range. Her abdominal dressing is dry with no indication of bleeding. My assessment suggests that Mrs. P. is hypovolemic and I would like you to consider in creasing her fluids or giving her a fluid challenge. Using the SBAR model for communication, the information the nurse gives about the patient’s history and vital signs is appropriate fo r what part of the model?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessment. In the SBAR communication model, the nurse's information about the patient's history and vital signs falls under the Assessment component. This is because the nurse is providing a detailed evaluation of the patient's current condition based on objective data such as urine output, heart rate, blood pressure, and other key indicators. The nurse is analyzing the situation and forming a judgment that the patient is hypovolemic, indicating a fluid deficit. This assessment is crucial for informing further actions or interventions, such as increasing fluids or providing a fluid challenge. Summary of other choices: A: Situation - This choice would refer to a brief summary of the current situation without detailed analysis or interpretation. B: Background - This choice would involve providing relevant background information about the patient, such as medical history or recent procedures, but not the current assessment of the patient's condition. D: Recommendation - This choice would involve suggesting a course of action or treatment based on the assessment, which comes after
Question 2 of 5
After a change-of-shift report on a ventilator weaning unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and now has no urine output for the last 6 hours. This patient should be assessed first because the absence of urine output for 6 hours after being extubated could indicate acute kidney injury or other serious complications that need immediate attention. Urine output is a crucial indicator of renal function and can reflect the patient's overall hemodynamic status. In contrast, the other choices do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Choice A involves a patient in rest mode post-failed breathing trial, which does not require immediate assessment. Choice B mentions continuous PETCO2 monitoring, which is important but not as urgent as assessing a patient with no urine output. Choice C describes a patient with a ScvO2 of 69%, which may need monitoring but does not indicate an urgent priority compared to assessing a patient with no urine output after recent extubation.
Question 3 of 5
When monitoring the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). This is crucial in monitoring a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction as it provides information on left ventricular function and fluid status. A high PAWP may indicate left ventricular failure or fluid overload, requiring immediate intervention. A: Central venous pressure (CVP) is not as specific for assessing left ventricular function and may not provide accurate information in this scenario. B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is important in assessing systemic blood flow, but it may not directly indicate left ventricular function in this case. C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is more relevant in conditions affecting the pulmonary circulation and may not be as immediately informative in assessing left ventricular function in this context.
Question 4 of 5
The patient’s spouse is very upset because the patient, who is near death, has dyspnea and restlessness. The nurse explains what options to decrease the discomfort?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Opioid medications given as needed. Opioids are indicated for managing dyspnea and restlessness in palliative care by providing relief from symptoms. They act as potent analgesics and can help decrease the distress associated with difficult breathing and restlessness. Respiratory therapy treatments (A) and incentive spirometry treatments (C) may not address the immediate discomfort caused by dyspnea and restlessness. Increased hydration (D) may not directly alleviate the symptoms and could potentially worsen the patient's discomfort.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 12 5 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO ) of 90% on a 50% venturi mask. 2 Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pres sure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following primary health care provider’s order?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a low cardiac output, low CVP, and low PAOP, indicating cardiogenic shock. Administering furosemide, a diuretic, can worsen the patient's condition by further decreasing preload. This can lead to a decrease in cardiac output and exacerbate the shock state. The other options are more appropriate: A: Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94% - Correct, as improving oxygenation is essential in cardiogenic shock. B: Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour - Correct, as fluid resuscitation may be necessary to improve perfusion. C: Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes - Correct, as these tests provide valuable information about the patient's oxygenation and electrolyte balance.
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