Her urine output for the past 2 hours totaled only 40 mL. She arrived from s urgery to repair an aortic aneurysm 4 hours ago and remains on mechanical ventilation. In the past 2 hours, her heart rate has increased from 80 to 100 beats per minute and he r blood pressure has decreased from 128/82 to 100/70 mm Hg. She is being given an infusaiboirnb .coofm n/toesrtm al saline at 100 mL per hour. Her right atrial pressure through the subclavian cen tral line is low at 3 mm Hg. Her urine is concentrated. Her BUN and creatinine levels have been stable and in normal range. Her abdominal dressing is dry with no indication of bleeding. My assessment suggests that Mrs. P. is hypovolemic and I would like you to consider in creasing her fluids or giving her a fluid challenge. Using the SBAR model for communication, the information the nurse gives about the patient’s history and vital signs is appropriate fo r what part of the model?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessment. In the SBAR communication model, the nurse's information about the patient's history and vital signs falls under the Assessment component. This is because the nurse is providing a detailed evaluation of the patient's current condition based on objective data such as urine output, heart rate, blood pressure, and other key indicators. The nurse is analyzing the situation and forming a judgment that the patient is hypovolemic, indicating a fluid deficit. This assessment is crucial for informing further actions or interventions, such as increasing fluids or providing a fluid challenge. Summary of other choices: A: Situation - This choice would refer to a brief summary of the current situation without detailed analysis or interpretation. B: Background - This choice would involve providing relevant background information about the patient, such as medical history or recent procedures, but not the current assessment of the patient's condition. D: Recommendation - This choice would involve suggesting a course of action or treatment based on the assessment, which comes after

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a low cardiac output, low CVP, and low PAOP, indicating cardiogenic shock. Administering furosemide, a diuretic, can worsen the patient's condition by further decreasing preload. This can lead to a decrease in cardiac output and exacerbate the shock state. The other options are more appropriate: A: Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94% - Correct, as improving oxygenation is essential in cardiogenic shock. B: Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour - Correct, as fluid resuscitation may be necessary to improve perfusion. C: Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes - Correct, as these tests provide valuable information about the patient's oxygenation and electrolyte balance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS. The PaO /FiO ratio is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO). In this case, PaO is 78 mm Hg and FiO is 0.6 (60%). Therefore, the calculation would be 78/0.6 = 130. This value is less than 300, which is indicative of ARDS according to the Berlin criteria. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the criteria for ARDS. Choice D is incorrect because the data provided is sufficient to compute the ratio.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain the permission of the custodial parent for the surgery. In this scenario, the client is a minor (16 years old), which means they are not legally able to provide informed consent for medical procedures. The custodial parent holds legal responsibility for the minor's healthcare decisions. Thus, obtaining the permission of the custodial parent is crucial to ensure valid informed consent. Choice B is incorrect because the non-custodial parent's consent may not be legally required if the custodial parent is available to provide consent. Choice C is incorrect because obtaining consent should precede any administration of medications. Choice D is incorrect as the stepfather's consent may not hold legal weight unless designated as a legal guardian.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because palliative care indeed focuses on providing relief from pain and other symptoms, enhancing quality of life for patients with serious illnesses. This aligns with the essence of palliative care, which is to provide holistic support to improve comfort and well-being. The other choices are incorrect: B is wrong because palliative care does not aim to cure the underlying disease but rather to alleviate suffering; C is incorrect as palliative care can be initiated earlier in the disease trajectory, not just during the final days; and D is inaccurate because patients can continue receiving treatments alongside palliative care to manage symptoms and improve their quality of life.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dimming lights during the night. This intervention helps reduce stress by creating a more calming environment, promoting rest and sleep. Constant observation (choice A) may increase stress due to lack of privacy. Frequent group rounds (choice C) may disrupt rest. Use of tile floors (choice D) is unrelated to addressing noise and light stress.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cluster nursing activities so that the patient has uninterrupted rest periods. Rationale: 1. Clustering nursing activities allows for uninterrupted rest periods, essential for improving sleep quality and addressing disturbed sensory perception. 2. Administering sedatives or opioids (Option A) can lead to drug dependence, tolerance, and adverse effects in older adults. 3. Silencing alarms (Option C) compromises patient safety by impeding timely monitoring and response to critical events. 4. Eliminating assessments (Option D) between 0100 and 0600 disregards the necessity of monitoring vital signs and assessing patient condition around the clock.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This paralysis helps facilitate intubation, surgical procedures, and mechanical ventilation. A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief; they primarily induce muscle paralysis without affecting pain sensation. B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures; their mechanism of action is not related to controlling convulsions. D: Sedation - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not induce sedation; they specifically target the neuromuscular junction to cause muscle paralysis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Listen to the patient’s breath sounds. Moving from 22 cm to 25 cm may indicate ET tube migration. Checking breath sounds can confirm proper tube placement. A may not address the underlying issue. B could worsen the situation if the tube is misplaced. D is not urgent compared to assessing airway integrity.