Her abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus but is otherwise unremarkable. On visualization of the anus there is a slight red, moist- appearing protrusion from the anus. As you have her bear down, the protrusion grows larger. On digital rectal examination you can feel an enlarged tender area on the posterior side. There is some blood on the glove after the examination. What disorder of the anus or rectum best fits this presentation?

Questions 28

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Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Her abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus but is otherwise unremarkable. On visualization of the anus there is a slight red, moist- appearing protrusion from the anus. As you have her bear down, the protrusion grows larger. On digital rectal examination you can feel an enlarged tender area on the posterior side. There is some blood on the glove after the examination. What disorder of the anus or rectum best fits this presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The described clinical presentation is consistent with internal hemorrhoids. The typical symptoms of internal hemorrhoids include painless rectal bleeding, protrusion from the anus during straining, and a feeling of incomplete evacuation. In this case, the protrusion is observed to be red, moist, and enlarges with bearing down, all indicative of internal hemorrhoids. The enlarged tender area felt on digital rectal examination supports the diagnosis. Additionally, the presence of blood on the glove after the examination is also suggestive of internal hemorrhoids causing bleeding. Anal fissures typically present with sharp pain during defecation and may have visible tears in the anal mucosa. External hemorrhoids are usually more painful and can be felt as a lump around the anus. Anorectal fistulas have different signs and symptoms, including discharge of pus and recurrent infections.

Question 2 of 9

Her right carotid pulse is bounding but the left carotid pulse is weak. She is afebrile but her respirations are 24 times a minute. On auscultation her lungs are clear and her cardiac examination is unremarkable. You call EMS and have her taken to the hospital's ER for further evaluation. What disorder of the chest best describes her symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A dissecting aortic aneurysm is the most likely disorder that best describes the symptoms presented. In this condition, the inner layer of the aorta tears and blood can flow between the layers of the aortic wall, causing a number of potential symptoms. A patient with a dissecting aortic aneurysm may present with a difference in pulses between the right and left sides due to decreased blood flow to one side. The bounding pulse on one side and weak pulse on the other are indicative of uneven blood flow distribution. Additionally, a dissecting aortic aneurysm can lead to respiratory symptoms such as increased respiratory rate if there is associated pain or discomfort, although clear lung sounds would not typically be expected with this condition. The condition is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate evaluation and treatment.

Question 3 of 9

A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most likely pathologic process based on the patient's symptoms and history would be an inflammatory process. The patient's joint pain, fever, and family history of rheumatoid arthritis suggest the possibility of an autoimmune inflammatory condition like rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The bilateral involvement of the wrists and fingers along with a family history of rheumatoid arthritis make this diagnosis more likely than an infectious, hematologic, or traumatic process in this case.

Question 4 of 9

You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum. What should you do next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When examining a newborn and noting that the right testicle is not in the scrotum, it is important to refer the newborn to a pediatric urologist for further evaluation and management. This condition could be a case of undescended testis (cryptorchidism), where the testicle fails to descend into the scrotum. Early intervention is crucial as the undescended testis may lead to complications such as infertility, testicular cancer, and inguinal hernia. Urology specialists can determine the best course of action to bring down the testis and ensure proper testicular development. Waiting or attempting manual descent without expertise could lead to complications, so it is best to involve a urologist for proper assessment and management.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following correlates with a sustained, high-amplitude PMI?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, there is an increased metabolic rate and sympathetic activity. This can lead to increased cardiac output and left ventricular mass, causing the heart to work harder. As a result, the left ventricle becomes hypertrophied, leading to a sustained, high-amplitude Point of Maximum Impulse (PMI) that is displaced laterally and downward. This can be felt during a physical examination as a strong and forceful PMI. In contrast, conditions like anemia, fever, and hypertension are not typically associated with a sustained, high-amplitude PMI.

Question 6 of 9

Two weeks ago, Mary started a job which requires carrying 40-pound buckets. She presents with elbow pain worse on the right. On examination, it hurts her elbows to dorsiflex her hands against resistance when her palms face the floor. What condition does she have?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition characterized by pain and tenderness on the lateral (outside) aspect of the elbow. It is typically caused by overuse or repetitive strain of the extensor muscles in the forearm, leading to inflammation of the tendons attached to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

Question 7 of 9

When should a woman conduct breast self-examination with respect to her menses?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: It is recommended for women to conduct breast self-examination immediately prior to their menses. This is because the breasts are less likely to be tender, lumpy, or swollen during this time of the menstrual cycle, making it easier to detect any abnormalities such as lumps or changes in the breast tissue. Conducting breast self-examination around this time each month can help women become familiar with the normal look and feel of their breasts, making it easier to detect any changes that may indicate a potential issue.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following is true of jugular venous pressure (JVP) measurement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is measured as the vertical height of the blood column in centimeters above the sternal angle (Angle of Louis). To measure the JVP accurately, the patient should be positioned at a 30-45 degree angle (not 45-degree angle as in choice A). The value obtained by measuring the JVP in centimeters is then added to 5 cm, which represents the distance from the sternal angle to the right atrium. Therefore, the formula for calculating JVP is the vertical height of the blood column in cm + 5 cm. A JVP below 9 cm (not 9 cm or choice C) is generally considered normal, while a JVP above that level is considered elevated. It is important to measure the JVP correctly and interpret the findings in the context of the patient's

Question 9 of 9

A young man is concerned about a hard mass he has just noticed in the midline of his palate. On examination, it is indeed hard and in the midline. There are no mucosal abnormalities associated with this lesion. He is experiencing no other symptoms. What will you tell him is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A hard mass in the midline of the palate with no associated mucosal abnormalities is most likely a torus palatinus. Torus palatinus is a benign bony growth that often occurs in the midline of the hard palate. It is typically asymptomatic and does not require treatment unless it causes issues with function or hygiene. Leukoplakia is a clinical term used to describe a white patch in the mouth that cannot be scrapped off and is associated with a risk of cancer. Thrush (candidiasis) presents as white, creamy patches in the mouth that can be scrapped off and is caused by a yeast infection. Kaposi's sarcoma presents as red or purple patches or nodules in the mouth and is associated with immunocompromised individuals, like those with HIV/AIDS.

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