Her abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus but is otherwise unremarkable. On visualization of the anus there is a slight red, moist- appearing protrusion from the anus. As you have her bear down, the protrusion grows larger. On digital rectal examination you can feel an enlarged tender area on the posterior side. There is some blood on the glove after the examination. What disorder of the anus or rectum best fits this presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The described clinical presentation is consistent with internal hemorrhoids. The typical symptoms of internal hemorrhoids include painless rectal bleeding, protrusion from the anus during straining, and a feeling of incomplete evacuation. In this case, the protrusion is observed to be red, moist, and enlarges with bearing down, all indicative of internal hemorrhoids. The enlarged tender area felt on digital rectal examination supports the diagnosis. Additionally, the presence of blood on the glove after the examination is also suggestive of internal hemorrhoids causing bleeding. Anal fissures typically present with sharp pain during defecation and may have visible tears in the anal mucosa. External hemorrhoids are usually more painful and can be felt as a lump around the anus. Anorectal fistulas have different signs and symptoms, including discharge of pus and recurrent infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is considered a coronary heart disease risk equivalent, meaning it confers a similar risk as having a history of coronary heart disease itself. Individuals with PAD have a significantly increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke. Therefore, when assessing the 10-year coronary heart disease risk of the 40-year-old banker, having peripheral arterial disease would be a crucial factor to consider in addition to other risk factors like hypertension, exercise habits, and smoking history.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A dissecting aortic aneurysm is the most likely disorder that best describes the symptoms presented. In this condition, the inner layer of the aorta tears and blood can flow between the layers of the aortic wall, causing a number of potential symptoms. A patient with a dissecting aortic aneurysm may present with a difference in pulses between the right and left sides due to decreased blood flow to one side. The bounding pulse on one side and weak pulse on the other are indicative of uneven blood flow distribution. Additionally, a dissecting aortic aneurysm can lead to respiratory symptoms such as increased respiratory rate if there is associated pain or discomfort, although clear lung sounds would not typically be expected with this condition. The condition is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate evaluation and treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The information provided about Mr. M's shortness of breath being present for the past 10 days, worsening with activity, and relieved by rest are all objective findings. These are measurable and observable facts that can be documented by healthcare professionals through physical examination, assessment, and potentially diagnostic tests. Subjective information would involve Mr. M's personal feelings or descriptions of his symptoms, which are not included in the given information.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Beau's lines are transverse grooves or depressions in the nails that occur from a temporary disruption in nail growth. These lines can be caused by a variety of factors, including systemic diseases, medication use, trauma, or environmental stressors. However, one of the most common causes of Beau's lines is a significant physiological stress such as a severe illness or major surgery that occurred about 3 months prior to the appearance of the lines. Therefore, looking for information from family and records regarding any problems that occurred around 3 months ago is the most appropriate next step to understand the underlying cause of Beau's lines in this unconscious patient. This information can provide crucial insights into the patient's medical history and potential underlying health issues that may need to be addressed.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most logical sequence for the patient-provider interview is to greet the patient, establish rapport, invite the patient's story, establish the agenda, expand and clarify the patient's story, and negotiate a plan. This sequence ensures a patient-centered approach by first building a connection with the patient, allowing the patient to share their concerns and story, and then working collaboratively with the patient to address these concerns. It is important to start by building rapport to establish trust and a comfortable environment for the patient to open up about their health concerns. Inviting the patient's story allows the provider to understand the patient's perspective and how their symptoms are impacting their life. Establishing the agenda sets the priorities for the visit and ensures that both the provider and patient are on the same page. Expanding and clarifying the patient's story helps gather more detailed information, leading to a comprehensive assessment. Finally, negotiating a plan together with the patient ensures shared decision-making and a patient-centered approach

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The described clinical presentation is consistent with internal hemorrhoids. The typical symptoms of internal hemorrhoids include painless rectal bleeding, protrusion from the anus during straining, and a feeling of incomplete evacuation. In this case, the protrusion is observed to be red, moist, and enlarges with bearing down, all indicative of internal hemorrhoids. The enlarged tender area felt on digital rectal examination supports the diagnosis. Additionally, the presence of blood on the glove after the examination is also suggestive of internal hemorrhoids causing bleeding. Anal fissures typically present with sharp pain during defecation and may have visible tears in the anal mucosa. External hemorrhoids are usually more painful and can be felt as a lump around the anus. Anorectal fistulas have different signs and symptoms, including discharge of pus and recurrent infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Secondary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation for 3-6 months in a woman who previously had regular menstrual cycles. In this case, Jean's lack of menstruation after giving birth and while breastfeeding her child for 6 months likely indicates secondary amenorrhea. This temporary suppression of ovulation and menstruation commonly occurs during breastfeeding due to the high levels of the hormone prolactin, which is responsible for milk production and can inhibit ovulation and menstruation. It is a natural phenomenon known as lactational amenorrhea. Once breastfeeding decreases or stops, menstruation usually resumes within a few months.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A condylar joint is a type of synovial joint that allows movement in two planes, typically flexion/extension and abduction/adduction. The interphalangeal joints of the hand, which are the joints between the phalanges (finger bones), exhibit this type of movement, making them an example of a condylar joint. The hip joint (choice A) is a ball-and-socket joint, the temporomandibular joint (choice C) is a hinge joint, and the intervertebral joint (choice D) is a cartilaginous joint, none of which are examples of condylar joints.