ATI RN
Pediatric Research Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Hepatoblastoma is a neoplasm of undifferentiated precursors of hepatocytes. It is of different histological classification; which type predict the MOST favorable outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) type of pure epithelial histology because hepatoblastomas with pure epithelial histology have been associated with the most favorable outcomes compared to other histological types. Pure epithelial hepatoblastomas typically respond better to treatment and have a higher survival rate. Option A) mixed type of pure epithelial and mesenchymal elements is incorrect because the presence of mesenchymal elements can indicate a more aggressive tumor behavior. Option C) type of mixed fetal and embryonal histology and Option D) type of undifferentiated histology are also incorrect as they are associated with poorer prognoses and more aggressive disease progression. In an educational context, understanding the histological classification of hepatoblastoma is crucial for pediatric oncology practitioners to make informed treatment decisions and predict patient outcomes. This question highlights the importance of recognizing the different histological types and their implications for patient management and prognosis in pediatric oncology.
Question 2 of 5
By the age of 7 months, the infant is able to do all the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question focusing on infant developmental milestones, the correct answer is option D) cruises. Cruising typically occurs around 9-12 months of age, not at 7 months. At 7 months, infants are usually mastering skills such as transferring objects from hand to hand, using a radial palm grasp, and actively bouncing. Option A) transferring objects from hand to hand is a fine motor skill that infants develop around 6-7 months of age. This skill showcases their growing dexterity and hand-eye coordination. Option B) actively bouncing refers to the ability of infants to bounce while being held or when supported in a standing position. This skill is usually seen around 6-9 months and demonstrates their increasing strength and coordination. Option C) using a radial palm grasp is a grasping skill where the infant picks up objects using their whole hand and fingers. This grasp typically emerges around 6-7 months and is an important precursor to more refined pincer grasp. In an educational context, understanding typical developmental milestones in infants is crucial for educators, caregivers, and healthcare professionals. It helps in monitoring a child's progress, identifying any potential delays early on, and providing appropriate interventions or support when needed. By knowing what to expect at different ages, professionals can create enriching environments that support optimal development and learning for infants.
Question 3 of 5
The MOST common cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months of life is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) colic. Colic is the most common cause of sleeping difficulty in infants during the first 2 months of life. Colic presents with excessive crying, fussiness, and difficulty in consoling the baby, leading to disrupted sleep patterns. This condition typically peaks around 6 weeks of age and gradually improves by 3-4 months. Option A) gastro-esophageal reflux can cause discomfort in infants, but it typically manifests as more of a feeding issue rather than a primary cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months. Option C) formula intolerance can also lead to fussiness and discomfort in infants, but it is less common than colic as a cause of sleeping difficulties in the early months of life. Option D) developmentally self-resolving sleeping behavior refers to normal changes in an infant's sleep patterns as they grow and develop. While this can impact sleep, it is not the most common cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months. Educationally, understanding the common causes of sleeping difficulty in infants is crucial for healthcare providers, caregivers, and educators working with young children. Recognizing colic as a primary culprit in disrupted sleep can guide interventions and support strategies for both the infant and their caregivers, promoting better sleep hygiene and overall well-being in the early months of life.
Question 4 of 5
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the use of validated standardized developmental screening tools at three of the health maintenance visits, these are at
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) 9 months, 18 months, and 30 months. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends using validated standardized developmental screening tools at these specific health maintenance visits to monitor a child's developmental progress effectively. Option A) 2 months, 6 months, and 12 months is incorrect because developmental screenings are not typically done this early in infancy. At 2 months, screenings focus more on general health and growth parameters. Option B) 6 months, 12 months, and 18 months is incorrect as well. While developmental milestones are important to monitor during these ages, the AAP specifically recommends screenings at different intervals. Option D) 12 months, 18 months, and 24 months is also incorrect. Although these ages are crucial for developmental monitoring, they do not align with the AAP's recommended timings for standardized screenings. Educationally, understanding the recommended schedule for developmental screenings is vital for healthcare providers and caregivers to ensure early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. By following the AAP guidelines, children can receive timely interventions and support if needed, ultimately leading to better long-term outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
About 500 children have just been exposed to radiation from a nuclear power plant accident. The most appropriate first step in your treatment of these children should be to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a scenario where 500 children have been exposed to radiation from a nuclear power plant accident, the most appropriate first step in treatment should be to prescribe potassium iodide to protect their thyroids. This is because potassium iodide can saturate the thyroid gland, preventing the absorption of radioactive iodine, which helps reduce the risk of developing thyroid cancer due to radiation exposure. Ordering thyroid function tests (option B) would not be the immediate priority as the focus should be on preventive measures to reduce the absorption of radioactive iodine. Similarly, ordering complete blood counts (option C) may not be as crucial in the acute phase of radiation exposure management. Doing nothing acutely and evaluating in 4-6 weeks (option D) is not advisable as immediate intervention is necessary to minimize the risk of thyroid damage in these children. Time is critical in radiation exposure cases, and delaying appropriate treatment can lead to severe health consequences. From an educational perspective, understanding the rationale behind the use of potassium iodide in radiation exposure incidents is crucial for healthcare professionals working in settings where such emergencies can occur. This knowledge empowers healthcare providers to take prompt and effective actions to protect individuals, especially vulnerable populations like children, from the harmful effects of radiation exposure.