ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Study Guide PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Hemostatic agent that reduces bleeding by local vasoconstriction:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Styptics are hemostatic agents that work by causing local vasoconstriction, which helps reduce bleeding. This vasoconstriction is achieved through their astringent properties, which constrict blood vessels and promote blood clotting at the site of application. Sympathomimetics, while also working to constrict blood vessels, do so systemically and are not specifically used for local hemostasis. Mechanical agents, such as pressure or sutures, physically help to stop bleeding but do not induce vasoconstriction. Thrombin is an enzyme involved in the clotting cascade but does not directly cause vasoconstriction.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is beginning isoniazid and rifampin treatment for tuberculosis. The nurse gives the patient which instruction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adherence to the prescribed regimen is critical in tuberculosis treatment to prevent resistance and ensure efficacy. Skipping doses can lead to treatment failure and drug-resistant TB. Isoniazid and rifampin are typically taken once daily, not three times daily. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of these drugs and should be avoided. There is no specific requirement to take rifampin initially; both drugs should be taken as prescribed.
Question 3 of 5
A 31-year-old male patient has been prescribed propranolol to reduce and prevent angina. What will the nurse assess this patient for related to the medication? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adverse effects of propranolol that the nurse would assess for include allergic reaction, bradycardia, heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias, cerebrovascular accident, pulmonary edema, gastric pain, flatulence, impotence, decreased exercise tolerance, and bronchospasm. The nurse should monitor for these adverse effects and intervene as needed to ensure patient safety.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is about to receive a morning dose of digoxin and has an apical pulse of 53 beats/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60 beats/minute in adults, as it can exacerbate bradycardia and lead to serious cardiac complications. The nurse should hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider for further instructions. Administering the dose (B) or contacting the charge nurse (C) without holding the dose is inappropriate.
Question 5 of 5
Adalimumab (Humira) is given to a client for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following side effect is associated with the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Adalimumab, a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitor, is associated with weight gain as a potential side effect. This may occur due to fluid retention or changes in metabolism. Numbness, constipation, and urinary retention are not commonly linked to adalimumab. Weight gain is a significant consideration for patients, as it can impact their overall health and adherence to treatment. Monitoring for this side effect is important, and dietary or lifestyle interventions may be necessary to manage it effectively.