Hemangiomas are the most common benign tumors of infancy, occurring more in full-term infants. Of the following, the most common risk factor of development of hemangioma is

Questions 124

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Certified Pediatric Nurse Exam Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Hemangiomas are the most common benign tumors of infancy, occurring more in full-term infants. Of the following, the most common risk factor of development of hemangioma is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) female infant. Hemangiomas are more common in females, with a female-to-male ratio of 3:1. This is due to the influence of estrogen on the development of these vascular tumors. Estrogen has been found to stimulate the growth of hemangiomas, explaining why they are more prevalent in female infants. Option A) male infant is incorrect because, as mentioned earlier, hemangiomas are more commonly seen in female infants. Option C) infant of diabetic mother is incorrect as there is no direct association between maternal diabetes and the development of hemangiomas in infants. Option D) infant delivered by cesarean section is also incorrect as the mode of delivery does not play a significant role in the development of hemangiomas. Educationally, understanding the risk factors associated with hemangiomas is crucial for healthcare providers working with pediatric patients. This knowledge helps in early identification, appropriate management, and patient education. By knowing that female infants are more predisposed to hemangiomas, healthcare providers can be more vigilant in monitoring these patients for the development of such benign tumors.

Question 2 of 5

The BEST implication of a 6-month-old baby's visuomotor coordination is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the best implication of a 6-month-old baby's visuomotor coordination is the voluntary release of objects, which corresponds to option A. At this age, infants typically start developing the ability to intentionally let go of objects they are holding. This milestone is a crucial indicator of their visuomotor coordination and motor skill development. Option B, the comparison ability of small objects, is not the best implication of a 6-month-old baby's visuomotor coordination. While infants at this age are starting to explore objects more intentionally, their primary focus is on grasping and releasing objects rather than comparing them. Option C, increasing ability to explore objects, is a partially correct statement as 6-month-old babies do indeed show a growing interest in exploring objects. However, the specific milestone of voluntary release of objects is a more accurate implication of their visuomotor coordination at this age. Option D, autonomy of actions, is not directly related to visuomotor coordination in this context. While infants are gaining more independence and autonomy in their actions overall, the specific milestone of voluntary object release is more indicative of their visuomotor development. From an educational perspective, understanding these developmental milestones is crucial for pediatric nurses as it helps them assess a child's growth and development accurately. By recognizing these milestones, nurses can identify any potential delays or issues early on and provide appropriate support and interventions to promote healthy development in children.

Question 3 of 5

The MOST common behavioral sleep disorder in a 4-month-old baby who needs to be rocked to sleep is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) sleep-onset association disorder. This sleep disorder is characterized by a baby needing a specific condition or action, such as being rocked, to fall asleep. In this case, the baby has associated rocking with falling asleep, making it difficult for them to self-soothe and fall asleep independently. This dependency on external stimuli for sleep onset can disrupt the baby's sleep patterns and cause sleep disturbances. Option A) early signs of ADHD is incorrect because the behavior described does not align with the symptoms of ADHD in infants. Option B) primary restless legs syndrome is incorrect as it typically presents with uncomfortable sensations in the legs and an urge to move them, not related to needing to be rocked to sleep. Option C) sleep terrors are also unrelated to the scenario described in the question. In an educational context, understanding common sleep disorders in infants is crucial for pediatric nurses. Recognizing sleep-onset association disorder allows nurses to provide appropriate guidance to parents on sleep training techniques to help the baby develop healthy sleep habits. Educating parents on creating a conducive sleep environment and promoting self-soothing skills can be beneficial in managing this disorder and promoting better sleep for the infant.

Question 4 of 5

The Denver II assesses the development of children from birth to 6 years of age, it includes the following domains EXCEPT

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) intelligence. The Denver II developmental screening tool assesses children from birth to 6 years in the domains of language, gross motor skills, and personal-social skills. Intelligence is not specifically assessed by the Denver II tool as it focuses more on developmental milestones across various domains rather than measuring cognitive intelligence. This is why option B is the correct answer. Option A, language, is included in the Denver II assessment to evaluate a child's language development. Option C, gross motor skills, is essential to assess a child's physical development and motor coordination. Option D, personal-social skills, evaluates a child's ability to interact with others and develop social relationships. In an educational context, understanding the domains assessed by developmental screening tools like the Denver II is crucial for pediatric nurses to identify any developmental delays or concerns early on. By recognizing the importance of each domain, nurses can provide appropriate support and interventions to promote optimal development in children.

Question 5 of 5

Antivenins should be considered in the treatment of all of the following EXCEPT

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: In this question from the Certified Pediatric Nurse Exam Practice Questions, the correct answer is E, which is not listed among the given options. Let's analyze the options provided: A) Rattlesnake envenomations: Antivenin is indicated for the treatment of rattlesnake envenomations as it helps neutralize the toxins injected by the snake. B) Scorpion envenomations: Antivenin is also used in the treatment of scorpion envenomations to counteract the effects of the venom. C) Black widow envenomations: Antivenin is considered in the treatment of black widow envenomations to manage the symptoms caused by the spider bite. D) Stonefish envenomations: Antivenin is used for the treatment of stonefish envenomations as well, as it helps in reversing the toxic effects of the venom. The correct answer, E, would likely be an option not commonly treated with antivenin in the context of pediatric nursing. In an educational context, understanding the specific indications for antivenin use in different types of envenomations is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide effective and timely care to pediatric patients who have been exposed to venomous bites or stings. This knowledge helps in ensuring appropriate treatment interventions are initiated promptly to improve patient outcomes.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions