ATI RN
jarvis physical assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Headache warning signs that need prompt investigation include all of the following except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the warning signs of headaches is crucial for healthcare providers to differentiate benign headaches from more serious conditions that require prompt investigation. In this question from the Jarvis Physical Assessment test bank, the correct answer is D) Headaches relieved with mild recurrent use of analgesics. This is the correct answer because headaches that are relieved with mild, recurrent use of analgesics may indicate medication overuse headaches (MOH), which can perpetuate a cycle of dependency on analgesics and mask underlying serious conditions. Option A) New onset after 50 is a warning sign because headaches that develop for the first time in individuals over 50 may be indicative of more concerning underlying causes such as temporal arteritis or brain tumors. Option B) Aggravated or relieved by change of position is important to investigate as it could point towards conditions like intracranial hypertension or positional headaches like cervicogenic headaches. Option C) Precipitated by Valsalva maneuver is also a concerning sign as it could indicate conditions such as intracranial mass lesions or Chiari malformation. Therefore, understanding these warning signs helps healthcare providers to appropriately assess and manage patients presenting with headaches, ensuring timely intervention when necessary.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following findings could indicate a need for further evaluation of the cardiac patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, option D, a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 190 mg/dl, indicates a need for further evaluation in a cardiac patient. Elevated LDL levels are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis, which can lead to cardiovascular diseases like heart attacks and strokes. Monitoring and managing LDL levels are crucial in cardiac patients to prevent complications. Option A, a hematocrit of 42%, is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood and is not specifically indicative of cardiac issues. Option B, a potassium level of 4.2 mg/dl, and option C, a sodium level of 140 mEq/dl, are electrolyte levels that, while important for overall health, do not directly point towards cardiac concerns in this context. Educationally, it is vital for healthcare providers to understand the significance of lipid profiles, including LDL levels, in assessing cardiovascular risk. Regular monitoring and appropriate management of lipid levels are key components of cardiac care. This question highlights the importance of recognizing specific markers that warrant further evaluation in cardiac patients to ensure optimal management and outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
A patient calls the nurse practitioner and states that he missed his morning daily dose of warfarin, 5 mg, yesterday and today. The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct option is D) Take warfarin 5 mg now and resume the warfarin 5 mg daily dose in the morning as scheduled. The rationale behind this is based on the pharmacokinetics of warfarin. Warfarin has a long half-life, meaning missing one or two doses will not significantly affect the blood levels immediately. It is safer to resume the usual dose rather than doubling the dose to make up for missed doses. Option A is incorrect as waiting until tomorrow and resuming daily dosing could lead to a gap in anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of thrombosis. Option B is incorrect because taking a double dose of warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. Option C is incorrect as it suggests a complicated dosing regimen that is not evidence-based and may lead to dosing errors. From an educational perspective, this question highlights the importance of understanding the pharmacokinetics and dosing principles of anticoagulants like warfarin. It emphasizes the need for healthcare providers to make informed decisions based on sound pharmacological knowledge to ensure patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who has a sulfa allergy can safely take:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Sumatriptan (Imitrex). Patients with a sulfa allergy can safely take sumatriptan because it does not contain a sulfonamide group that typically causes allergic reactions in individuals with sulfa allergies. Sumatriptan is a triptan medication used to treat migraines and works by narrowing blood vessels in the brain. Option B) Celecoxib (Celebrex) is incorrect because it is a sulfonamide nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which individuals with sulfa allergies should avoid due to the potential for cross-reactivity and allergic reactions. Option C) Glimepiride (Amaryl) is incorrect because it is a sulfonylurea medication used to treat diabetes, but it does not contain a sulfonamide group and is generally considered safe for patients with sulfa allergies. Option D) Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is incorrect because it contains a sulfonamide group, which can trigger allergic reactions in individuals with sulfa allergies. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of patients' allergies to ensure safe prescribing practices. Understanding the chemical structures of medications and their potential for cross-reactivity in patients with specific allergies, such as sulfa allergies, is essential for providing optimal patient care and avoiding adverse drug reactions.
Question 5 of 5
On examination, a patient is noted to have a "mask-like" face with decreased blinking and a characteristic stare. These features may be characteristic of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Parkinson's disease. The patient's presentation of a "mask-like" face with decreased blinking and a characteristic stare is indicative of Parkinson's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing brain cells. These symptoms are a result of dysregulation in the basal ganglia, leading to motor impairments. Option A) Nephrotic syndrome is a renal disorder characterized by proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia. These symptoms do not correlate with the patient's presentation. Option B) Myxedema is a severe form of hypothyroidism characterized by swelling, dry skin, hair loss, and fatigue. These symptoms are not consistent with the patient's neurological manifestations. Option C) Cushing's syndrome results from prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, leading to symptoms such as weight gain, hypertension, and muscle weakness. These features do not align with the patient's neurological signs. Educationally, understanding the distinctive clinical manifestations of different conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management. In the context of pharmacology, recognizing the unique signs and symptoms associated with Parkinson's disease aids in selecting appropriate pharmacological interventions such as dopaminergic agents to alleviate motor symptoms. This underscores the importance of pharmacists and healthcare professionals having a comprehensive understanding of the pathophysiology and clinical features of various diseases to optimize patient care.