He is concerned about his weight. Based on this information, what is appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit?

Questions 27

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ATI RN Test Bank

Health Assessment and Physical Examination Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

He is concerned about his weight. Based on this information, what is appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit would be to give information about the reduction of fat, cholesterol, and calories because he is concerned about his weight. This option addresses the patient's concern and provides guidance on making healthier choices to manage weight. Referring the patient to a nutritionist because he is anorexic (Option A) is not appropriate based on the information provided. Reassuring the patient that he has a normal body weight (Option B) may not address his concerns about weight. Giving the patient information about reducing fat and cholesterol only because he is obese (Option D) does not cover all aspects of a healthy diet such as managing calorie intake.

Question 2 of 9

You are excited about a positive test finding you have just noticed on physical examination of your patient. You go on to do more examination, laboratory work, and diagnostic tests, only to find that there is no sign of the disease you thought would correlate with the finding. This same experience happens several times. What should you conclude?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The repeated scenario of finding a positive test result that does not correlate with the suspected disease indicates a lack of specificity for the test in question. In such cases, it is important to use the test when there is a higher suspicion for a specific condition that is known to correlate with the finding. By using the test selectively in situations where it is more likely to provide accurate information, its utility can be maximized and unnecessary further workup can be avoided. This approach allows for a more targeted and efficient use of resources in the diagnostic process.

Question 3 of 9

A 23-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of a urethral discharge. As the provider, you need to get a sexual history. Which one of the following questions is inappropriate for eliciting the information?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: While it is important to ask about recent sexual activity and whether it included sexual intercourse, using the term "intimate physical contact" is not specific enough. This question could potentially lead to misinterpretation or confusion regarding what types of activities are being referred to. It is more appropriate to directly ask about sexual intercourse when obtaining a sexual history. The other options are all appropriate questions to elicit information about the patient's sexual history.

Question 4 of 9

A 29-year-old married computer programmer comes to your clinic, complaining of "something strange" going on in his scrotum. Last month while he was doing his testicular self- examination he felt a lump in his left testis. He waited a month and felt the area again, but the lump was still there. He has had some aching in his left testis but denies any pain with urination or sexual intercourse. He denies any fever, malaise, or night sweats. His past medical history consists of groin surgery when he was a baby and a tonsillectomy as a teenager. He eats a healthy diet and works out at the gym five times a week. He denies any tobacco or illegal drugs and drinks alcohol occasionally. His parents are both healthy. On examination you see a muscular, healthy, young-appearing man with unremarkable vital signs. On visualization the penis is circumcised with no lesions; there is a scar in his right inguinal region. There is no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum is unremarkable on the right but indicates a large mass on the left. Placing a finger through the inguinal ring on the right, you have the patient bear down. Nothing is felt. You attempt to place your finger through the left inguinal ring but cannot get above the mass. On rectal examination his prostate is unremarkable. What disorder of the testes is most likely the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this case is a scrotal hernia. The patient's history of a previous groin surgery as a baby is a key clue, as it increases the risk for developing a hernia. The lump in the left testis with aching, along with the inability to palpate above the mass through the left inguinal ring, suggests that the lump may be a hernia protruding through the inguinal canal into the scrotum. The presence of a scar in the right inguinal region also supports the likelihood of a hernia. The normal prostate on rectal examination rules out any involvement of the prostate in the presentation. Scrotal hernias may present as painless masses in the scrotum, often increasing in size with activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as straining or coughing. Surgical repair is often necessary to prevent complications such as incarceration or strangulation

Question 5 of 9

Mrs. Fletcher comes to your office with unilateral pain during chewing, which is chronic. She does not have facial tenderness or tenderness of the scalp. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pain?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Mrs. Fletcher's symptoms of unilateral pain during chewing, which is chronic, without facial tenderness or tenderness of the scalp are more suggestive of temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome rather than other conditions listed. TMJ syndrome is characterized by pain and dysfunction of the jaw muscles and the joints that connect the jaw to the skull. The pain is often worsened by chewing or opening the mouth widely. In this case, the absence of facial tenderness or signs of temporal arteritis makes these conditions less likely. Trigeminal neuralgia typically presents with sudden, severe facial pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. Tumor of the mandible would likely present with other symptoms such as swelling, bone destruction, or difficulty with mouth opening and chewing. Temporal arteritis usually presents with symptoms such as headache, scalp tenderness, and visual disturbances. Given Mrs. Fletcher's presentation,

Question 6 of 9

A patient is concerned about a dark skin lesion on her anterolateral abdomen. It has not changed, and there is no discharge or bleeding. On examination there is a medium brown circular lesion on the anterolateral wall of the abdomen. It is soft, has regular borders, is evenly pigmented, and is about 7 mm in diameter. What is this lesion?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Given the description provided, the lesion appears to be a dermatofibroma. Dermatofibromas are common benign skin lesions that typically present as a firm, solitary nodule on the skin. They commonly occur on the lower extremities but can also be found on the trunk. The characteristics of a dermatofibroma include being firm to the touch, having regular borders, being evenly pigmented, and a diameter typically less than 1 cm to 2 cm. They are usually painless and do not change significantly over time.

Question 7 of 9

A 58-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with a complaint of breathlessness with activity. The patient has no chronic conditions and does not take any medications, herbs, or supplements. Which of the following symptoms is appropriate to ask about in the cardiovascular review of systems?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Orthopnea is a symptom characterized by difficulty breathing while lying flat that improves when sitting or standing upright. This symptom is specifically related to cardiovascular conditions, such as heart failure, in which fluid accumulates in the lungs when lying down. Considering the patient's complaint of breathlessness with activity and the need to assess for cardiovascular issues, asking about orthopnea would be most appropriate to gain insights into potential heart-related causes of the symptoms. Abdominal pain (A), hematochezia (C), and tenesmus (D) are not typically associated with cardiovascular conditions and are less relevant to the patient's presentation.

Question 8 of 9

A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by a retinal detachment. Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive tissue lining the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position. This can lead to visual disturbances, including sudden loss of vision in one eye. Retinal detachment can be a medical emergency and requires prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent permanent vision loss. Other conditions mentioned in the choices, such as corneal ulcer, acute glaucoma, and uveitis, may also cause vision problems but are less likely to present with a sudden and painless unilateral vision loss as a primary symptom.

Question 9 of 9

It started a few hours ago, and she has noted nausea with sensitivity to light; she has had headaches like this in the past, usually less than one per week, but not as severe. She does not know of any inciting factors. There has been no change in the frequency of her headaches. She usually takes an over- the-counter analgesic, and this results in resolution of the headache. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis of the type of headache?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The description of the headache as starting a few hours ago, associated with nausea, sensitivity to light, and being severe in intensity suggests a migraine headache. Migraine headaches are often accompanied by these symptoms, known as migraine features. The fact that the patient experiences headaches like this less than once a week and typically uses over-the-counter analgesics to relieve them is also suggestive of migraines. Tension headaches typically present as a more mild to moderate, band-like pressure around the head, without the associated symptoms of nausea and sensitivity to light. Cluster headaches are characterized by excruciating pain around one eye, often accompanied by other symptoms like redness or tearing in the eye. Analgesic rebound headaches occur due to overuse of pain medications and typically present as daily headaches that improve with the same medication that caused them in the first place.

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