ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
He is afebrile. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. Visualization of the anus shows no erythema, masses, or inflammation. Digital rectal examination elicits an irregular, firm mass on the posterior side of the rectum. After you remove your finger you notice frank blood on your glove. What anal or rectal disorder is this patient most likely to have?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient in this scenario presents with symptoms suggestive of an anorectal disorder. The presence of an irregular, firm mass on the posterior side of the rectum, along with frank blood seen on the glove after a digital rectal examination, raises suspicion for an underlying anorectal cancer. Anorectal cancer can present with symptoms such as rectal bleeding, changes in bowel habits, palpable masses, and weight loss. In this case, the findings of an irregular mass and rectal bleeding are concerning for a malignant process such as anorectal cancer. Further evaluation with imaging studies and biopsy would be warranted for confirmation and to guide appropriate management.
Question 2 of 5
The following information is best placed in which category? "The patient had a stent placed in the left anterior descending artery (LAD) in "
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The information provided - "The patient had a stent placed in the left anterior descending artery (LAD)" - is related to a medical procedure, specifically a surgical intervention involving the placement of a stent in a coronary artery. This information falls under the category of surgeries because it describes a surgical treatment to address a cardiovascular issue. It does not pertain to adult illnesses, obstetrics/gynecology, or psychiatric conditions, making option B the most appropriate category for this information.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following conditions could be responsible for this heart rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial flutter is a cardiac arrhythmia characterized by rapid, regular atrial contractions at a rate of around 250-350 beats per minute. This can lead to a ventricular response rate that is usually around 150 beats per minute, resulting in a fast heart rate. The ECG pattern in atrial flutter typically shows a sawtooth pattern of flutter waves, which distinguishes it from other arrhythmias. In contrast, second-degree A-V block, sinus arrhythmia, and atrial fibrillation would not typically present with the rapid regular atrial contractions seen in atrial flutter.
Question 4 of 5
Her blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable except for edema of the nasal turbinates. On auscultation she has decreased air movement, and coarse crackles are heard over the left lower lobe. There is dullness on percussion, increased fremitus during palpation, and egophony and whispered pectoriloquy on auscultation. What disorder of the thorax or lung best describes her symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's symptoms point towards pneumonia. Pneumonia is characterized by infection and inflammation in the lung tissue, leading to symptoms such as decreased air movement, crackles on auscultation, dullness on percussion, increased fremitus on palpation, and abnormal breath sounds like egophony and whispered pectoriloquy. These findings are consistent with consolidation of the lung, which occurs in pneumonia as a result of fluid, inflammatory cells, and tissue debris filling the alveoli. The presence of nasal turbinates edema indicates a possible upper respiratory tract infection that may have preceded the development of pneumonia. Spontaneous pneumothorax would typically present with sudden-onset chest pain and dyspnea but would not typically cause findings of lung consolidation. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma are characterized by different patterns of lung damage and symptoms, such as chronic inflammation, airflow obstruction, and hyper
Question 5 of 5
A 28-year-old musician comes to your clinic, complaining of a "spot" on his penis. He states his partner noticed it 2 days ago and it hasn't gone away. He says it doesn't hurt. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during intercourse. He has had several partners in the last year and uses condoms occasionally. His past medical history consists of nongonococcal urethritis from Chlamydia and prostatitis. He denies any surgeries. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks a case of beer a week, and smokes marijuana and occasionally crack. He has injected IV drugs before but not in the last few years. He is single and currently unemployed. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis and he doesn't know anything about his father. On examination you see a young man appearing deconditioned but pleasant. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis there is a 6-mm red, oval ulcer with an indurated base just proximal to the corona. There is no prepuce because of neonatal circumcision. On palpation the ulcer is nontender. In the inguinal region there is nontender lymphadenopathy. What disorder of the penis is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation described in the scenario is consistent with a syphilitic chancre, which is the primary lesion of syphilis. Syphilitic chancres are painless, indurated ulcers that occur at the site of initial infection with Treponema pallidum. These chancres are typically 0.5-2 cm in size, have a clean base, and are often accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy. The red oval ulcer with an indurated base in this patient, along with the absence of pain and presence of lymphadenopathy, is consistent with a syphilitic chancre.