He is afebrile. His abdominal examination reveals normal bowel sounds, but he is very tender in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area. He has no Murphy's sign or tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The remainder of his abdominal examination is normal. His rectal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernias or tenderness with that examination. Blood work is pending. What etiology of abdominal pain is most likely causing his symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of tenderness in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area, along with normal bowel sounds, is suggestive of acute pancreatitis. This condition typically presents with severe, steady epigastric pain that may radiate to the back or left upper quadrant. Patients may also have tenderness on physical examination in these areas. Acute pancreatitis is commonly associated with risk factors such as gallstones or excessive alcohol consumption.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described involves a patient with pericarditis. Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, which can lead to characteristic findings such as a scratching noise heard on auscultation, leaning forward relieving pain, and normal lung examination findings. The presence of pericarditis can also lead to a pericardial friction rub, which is often described as a scratching or grating sound heard best at the lower left sternal border.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a 30-year-old man with a firm, 2-cm mass under his areola and no other symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is breast tissue. Gynecomastia is a common condition in males where there is proliferation of breast tissue. It typically presents as a firm subareolar mass and can occur due to hormonal imbalances, medication use, or underlying medical conditions. Given the lack of family history of breast cancer, absence of other symptoms, and the age of the patient, breast tissue is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Breast cancer is less likely in this scenario, especially without any additional concerning findings or family history. Fibrocystic disease and lymph node involvement are also less likely given the presentation of a firm mass under the areola.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The third heart sound (S3) is a low-frequency sound heard in early diastole, immediately following the second heart sound (S2). It is generated by the abrupt deceleration of the column of blood against the ventricular wall during the rapid passive filling phase (early diastole) when the ventricle is suddenly stretched by a large volume of blood. The S3 sound typically reflects decreased ventricular compliance, rather than normal compliance. An S3 sound is often considered pathological and is commonly associated with conditions such as heart failure, volume overload, and dilated cardiomyopathy. Therefore, the statement that the third heart sound reflects normal compliance of the left ventricle (Choice B) is incorrect.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: For a new patient with the chief complaint of "I am here to establish care," a comprehensive health history would be appropriate. In this scenario, since the patient is new to the healthcare provider, it is important to gather detailed information about the patient's past medical history, family history, social history, medications, allergies, and specific health concerns. This comprehensive health history will help the healthcare provider establish a baseline of the patient's overall health and identify any potential risk factors or underlying conditions that may impact future care and treatment decisions. Additionally, obtaining a thorough health history is essential in building a strong patient-provider relationship and providing patient-centered care.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with a blood pressure of 168/94 on both arms, it indicates poorly controlled hypertension. Hypertension can have various causes, including kidney-related issues. Referring the patient to nephrology would be the appropriate next step to evaluate and manage any potential underlying kidney conditions contributing to the uncontrolled blood pressure. The nephrologist can conduct further tests and assessments to determine the root cause and provide specialized care for the patient's condition. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation and targeted management plan for the patient's hypertension.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rectal prolapse occurs when the rectum protrudes through the anus. It typically appears as a moist, pink mass that protrudes outside the body. The prolapse is usually painless and can be seen and felt by the patient or the examiner. It is commonly seen in elderly individuals, especially women, and those with conditions like chronic constipation, pelvic floor weakness, or dementia. On the other hand, external hemorrhoids are swollen veins located around the anus, usually painful and may cause bleeding. Perianal fistula is an abnormal tunnel-like connection between the skin near the anus and the rectum, which can cause pain and discharge. Prolapsed internal hemorrhoids are internal hemorrhoids that have descended outside the anal canal and may require manual reduction. Given the symptoms described in the scenario - a moist pink mass protruding from the anus that is nontender and soft without bleeding - the most likely diagnosis is rectal prol

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely explanation for the discrepancy between the patient's relatively normal blood pressure reading (118/92) and the presence of hypertensive changes in her retinas and mild proteinuria is that the process causing her retinopathy and kidney problems has resolved. Hypertensive changes in the retinas and proteinuria are typically signs of chronic uncontrolled hypertension, but they can also be residual manifestations of previously uncontrolled hypertension that has now been effectively treated.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The description provided, which includes a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation and absence of hair shafts, is characteristic of alopecia areata. Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss in round or oval patches on the scalp or other parts of the body. It is not associated with pulling or twisting of hair (trichotillomania), fungal infection (tinea capitis), or hair loss due to constant pulling force (traction alopecia). In alopecia areata, the affected area usually appears smooth and without visible signs of irritation. Treatment options for alopecia areata may include corticosteroid injections, topical immunotherapy, or minoxidil.