He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that

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Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions

Question 1 of 9

He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Rationale: 1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion. 2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. 3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients. Summary: A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated. B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context. D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.

Question 2 of 9

The AGACNP is treating a patient with ascites. After a regimen of 200 mg of spironolactone daily, the patient demonstrates a weight loss of 0.75 kgday. The best approach to this patients management is to

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continue the current regimen. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used to treat ascites. The weight loss of 0.75 kg/day indicates that the current regimen is effective. Continuing the regimen is appropriate to avoid electrolyte imbalances. Discontinuing spironolactone (Choice B) can lead to rebound edema. Adding a loop diuretic (Choice C) may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbances. Large-volume paracentesis (Choice D) is reserved for cases of refractory ascites.

Question 3 of 9

A correct statement about an acute small for gestational age neonate is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an acute small for gestational age neonate will have all body parts proportionately reduced in size compared to a normal gestational age baby. This is due to intrauterine growth restriction. Choice B is incorrect because the head is not disproportionately larger. Choice C is incorrect as it states the body is larger than the head, which is not the case in SGA babies. Choice D is incorrect as SGA babies typically appear thin with a scaphoid abdomen, not plumpy.

Question 4 of 9

Lester R. is a 58-year-old male who is being evaluated for nocturia. He reports that he has to get up 2 to 3 times nightly to void. Additional assessment reveals urinary urgency and appreciable post-void dribbling. A digital rectal examination reveals a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. The best approach to this patient includes

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessment of nonprostate causes of nocturia. In this case, the patient's symptoms of nocturia, urinary urgency, and post-void dribbling are not indicative of prostate enlargement. Given that the digital rectal examination revealed a normal-sized prostate with no hypertrophy, it is essential to explore other potential causes of nocturia in this patient. By assessing non-prostate causes of nocturia, such as diabetes, urinary tract infection, medication side effects, or sleep disorders, a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan can be developed. This approach will lead to better patient outcomes compared to focusing solely on prostate-related evaluations. Option A: Administration of the AUA Symptom Scale is not the best approach in this case because the patient's symptoms are not primarily related to prostate enlargement. Option B: Laboratory assessment to include a PSA is not necessary since the digital rectal examination already indicated a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. Option C: Ordering a

Question 5 of 9

Chemical diabetes mellitus is a classification based on

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Symptom are absent and abnormal specific laboratory results. Chemical diabetes mellitus refers to a condition where there are abnormal specific laboratory results indicating diabetes without the presence of any symptoms. This classification is based on objective data from laboratory tests rather than subjective symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the definition of chemical diabetes mellitus, which focuses on laboratory results rather than symptoms, congenital abnormalities, or pregnancy outcomes.

Question 6 of 9

A pregnant woman with acute pyelonephritis is advised on a high fluid intake so as to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Correct dehydration. Acute pyelonephritis can lead to dehydration due to fever, vomiting, and decreased fluid intake. High fluid intake helps correct dehydration by maintaining adequate fluid balance and preventing further complications. Increasing urine output (choice D) is a consequence of correcting dehydration. Promoting enough rest (choice A) is important but not the primary reason for advising high fluid intake. Relief of irritability (choice C) is not directly related to the management of acute pyelonephritis.

Question 7 of 9

Intraperitoneal uterine rupture involves

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because intraperitoneal uterine rupture involves a tear that goes through all layers of the uterus - endometrium, myometrium, and peritoneum. This type of rupture extends beyond the muscular layer of the uterus and into the peritoneal cavity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not include the peritoneum, which is a key component of intraperitoneal uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the layers involved in this type of rupture.

Question 8 of 9

Psychosocial adversities are among the predisposing factors of puerperal psychosis.

Correct Answer: T

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Puerperal psychosis is a severe mental health condition occurring postpartum. 2. Psychosocial adversities, such as stress or lack of social support, can trigger or exacerbate mental health issues. 3. Therefore, psychosocial adversities can be predisposing factors for puerperal psychosis. 4. Option A (TRUE) is correct as it aligns with the established relationship between psychosocial factors and mental health. Summary: Option A is correct because psychosocial adversities can indeed contribute to the development of puerperal psychosis, making it a relevant predisposing factor. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide any rationale or evidence to support their validity.

Question 9 of 9

Specific management of moderate pre-eclampsia involves

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Managing as an outpatient case) Rationale: 1. Moderate pre-eclampsia indicates stable condition. 2. Outpatient management allows close monitoring without hospitalization. 3. Early intervention can prevent progression to severe pre-eclampsia. 4. Hospital admission is reserved for severe cases or complications (not moderate). 5. Encouraging fluids is important, but not the specific management for pre-eclampsia.

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