ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Rationale: 1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion. 2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. 3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients. Summary: A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated. B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context. D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.
Question 2 of 9
The AGACNP is counseling a patient about various methods of tumor biopsy. Which of the following is not an accurate statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Fine needle aspiration does not allow grading of tumors. Rationale: 1. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) collects cells for cytology evaluation, not tissue for grading. 2. Grading requires evaluation of tissue architecture, which is not possible with FNA. 3. FNA is useful for diagnosis but not for determining tumor grade. Summary: A: Incorrect - Excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy to obtain the entire tumor for diagnosis and grading. B: Incorrect - Core needle biopsy has a lower false positive rate compared to fine needle aspiration. D: Incorrect - Core needle and incisional biopsies differ in the amount of tissue sampled and potential for false results.
Question 3 of 9
The relationship between abdominal pain and vomiting typically can be characterized by saying
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The presence of bile in vomitus suggests that the vomit originated from the small intestine or stomach, indicating an obstruction in the pyloric region. Step 2: Pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by narrowing of the opening from the stomach to the small intestine, leading to projectile vomiting with bile. Step 3: Therefore, the presence of bile in vomitus suggests pyloric stenosis, making option D the correct answer. Summary: Option A is incorrect because vomiting preceding pain does not necessarily indicate a surgical abdomen. Option B is incorrect as the severity of symptoms is not solely based on age. Option C is incorrect as some surgical abdomens can present with vomiting as a primary symptom.
Question 4 of 9
Intraperitoneal uterine rupture involves
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because intraperitoneal uterine rupture involves a tear that goes through all layers of the uterus - endometrium, myometrium, and peritoneum. This type of rupture extends beyond the muscular layer of the uterus and into the peritoneal cavity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not include the peritoneum, which is a key component of intraperitoneal uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the layers involved in this type of rupture.
Question 5 of 9
A pregnant woman with acute pyelonephritis is advised on a high fluid intake so as to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Correct dehydration. Acute pyelonephritis can lead to dehydration due to fever, vomiting, and decreased fluid intake. High fluid intake helps correct dehydration by maintaining adequate fluid balance and preventing further complications. Increasing urine output (choice D) is a consequence of correcting dehydration. Promoting enough rest (choice A) is important but not the primary reason for advising high fluid intake. Relief of irritability (choice C) is not directly related to the management of acute pyelonephritis.
Question 6 of 9
The PRIORITY action to take when nursing a neonate on phototherapy is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check the neonate’s vital signs every 2-4 hourly. This is the priority action because neonates undergoing phototherapy are at risk for dehydration and temperature instability. Monitoring vital signs regularly helps to detect any signs of dehydration, such as decreased urine output or increased heart rate, and ensures timely intervention. Explanation for other choices: A: Turning the neonate every six hours routinely is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not the priority when compared to monitoring vital signs for potential complications. B: Encouraging the mother to discontinue breastfeeding is incorrect as breastmilk provides essential nutrients and hydration, which are important for neonates, even during phototherapy. C: Notifying the physician if the skin turns bronze-colored is important to address a potential adverse reaction to phototherapy but does not take precedence over monitoring vital signs for immediate concerns.
Question 7 of 9
A correct statement about an acute small for gestational age neonate is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an acute small for gestational age neonate will have all body parts proportionately reduced in size compared to a normal gestational age baby. This is due to intrauterine growth restriction. Choice B is incorrect because the head is not disproportionately larger. Choice C is incorrect as it states the body is larger than the head, which is not the case in SGA babies. Choice D is incorrect as SGA babies typically appear thin with a scaphoid abdomen, not plumpy.
Question 8 of 9
How can folic acid supplementation prevent neural tube defects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because folic acid supplementation plays a crucial role in promoting spinal cord closure during fetal development, preventing neural tube defects. Folic acid helps in the formation of neural tube structures, ensuring proper closure and preventing defects like spina bifida. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as preventing infections, enhancing fetal growth, and regulating blood sugar levels are not direct mechanisms through which folic acid prevents neural tube defects.
Question 9 of 9
Which one of the following therapies is the MOST incorporated in the management of clients with gestational diabetes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Short acting insulin. In gestational diabetes, short acting insulin is preferred as it provides immediate control over blood sugar levels after meals. This is crucial in managing the condition to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Therapeutic diet alone (choice A) may not be sufficient to control blood sugar levels, while long-acting insulin (choice B) may not provide the rapid response needed after meals. Oral hypoglycemics (choice C) are generally avoided in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Therefore, short acting insulin is the most appropriate therapy for managing gestational diabetes effectively.