ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's low blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Hypotension can occur as a compensatory mechanism in traumatic brain injury to maintain cerebral perfusion. The body may reduce blood pressure to decrease the risk of further brain injury or bleeding. It is important for the AGACNP to recognize that in traumatic brain injury, hypotension may not necessarily require immediate intervention with vasopressors, as it may be a protective response. Monitoring and managing the patient's condition closely, including neurologic status and trends in blood pressure, is crucial in this situation.
Question 2 of 5
R. R. is a 71-year-old female who presents with left lower quadrant pain that started out as cramping but has become more constant over the last day. She reports constipation over the last few days but admits that for as long as she can remember she has had variable bowel habits. Her vital signs are normal, but physical examination reveals some tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which diagnostic test is most likely to support the leading differential diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a 71-year-old female presenting with left lower quadrant pain and a history of constipation, the most likely differential diagnosis to consider is diverticulitis. A CT scan with IV, oral, and rectal contrast is the diagnostic test of choice for confirming suspected diverticulitis. It is considered the gold standard imaging modality for evaluating acute abdominal pain and can help identify diverticula, inflammation, abscesses, and complications such as perforation or obstruction.
Question 3 of 5
Mrs. Coates is a 65-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer. She had an uneventful immediate postoperative course, but throughout the course of day 1 she has complained of a mild abdominal discomfort that has progressed throughout the day. This evening the AGACNP is called to the bedside to evaluate the patient for persistent and progressive discomfort. Likely causes of her symptoms include all of the following except
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, Mrs. Coates is a 65-year-old female who is on the first day postoperatively following a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer. Given her surgical history and the progression of her abdominal discomfort, the likely causes to consider are complications related to the surgery. Options B, C, and D are all potential postoperative complications following a duodenal resection:
Question 4 of 5
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) would be the most useful head imaging study in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this patient. MRI is superior to CT in detecting subtle changes in the brain, such as small hemorrhages, edema, or shearing injuries, which may be present in cases of physical abuse. In cases of suspected abuse, it is important to evaluate for both acute and chronic changes that may not be clearly visible on other imaging modalities. While CT scans can detect acute hemorrhages or fractures, they may miss more subtle findings that can be seen on MRI. Therefore, an MRI would provide a more comprehensive evaluation of the brain and surrounding structures in this case.
Question 5 of 5
Janice is a 32-year-old female who presents for evaluation of abdominal pain. She has no significant medical or surgical history and denies any history of ulcers, reflux, or gastritis. However, she is now in significant pain and is afraid something is really wrong. She describes what started out as a dull discomfort in the upper part of her stomach a few hours ago but has now become more profound and centered on the right side just under her ribcage. She has not vomited but says she feels nauseous. Physical exam reveals normal vital signs except for a pulse of 117 bpm. She is clearly uncomfortable, and palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness with deep palpation of the right upper quadrant. The AGACNP orders which imaging study to investigate the likely cause?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Given Janice's presentation of significant abdominal pain localized to the right upper quadrant with tenderness on deep palpation, the most appropriate initial imaging study to investigate the likely cause is a right upper quadrant ultrasound. This imaging modality is commonly used to evaluate the liver, gallbladder, bile ducts, and adjacent structures. It can help identify common causes of right upper quadrant pain such as gallstones, cholecystitis, or biliary duct obstruction. The non-invasive nature of ultrasound and its ability to provide real-time imaging make it a valuable tool in the initial assessment of patients with abdominal pain. Depending on the findings of the ultrasound, further imaging studies or interventions may be pursued. Abdominal radiographs may not provide sufficient detail of the biliary system, while a CT scan with contrast or a HIDA scan may be reserved for further evaluation if needed based on the ultrasound findings.