Haloperidol:

Questions 31

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Pharmacology Practice Exam ATI Questions

Question 1 of 5

Haloperidol:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, causes hypotension less than phenothiazines, so that's not its hallmark. It's highly prone to extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) like dystonia due to strong D2 receptor blockade, a true statement. Arrhythmias (e.g., QT prolongation) occur but aren't its primary issue. Antimuscarinic effects are minimal compared to other antipsychotics. Confusion is possible but not its defining toxicity. EPS prominence drives the need for adjunctive anticholinergics in treatment, a key consideration in schizophrenia management.

Question 2 of 5

A patient looks up the drug he is taking in a drug guide. The patient asks the nurse why the physician prescribed a medication that has a lethal dose measure. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Lethal dose (e.g., LD50) from research guides safe dosing by showing toxicity thresholds, reassuring the patient it informs, not dictates, prescription. It's not just research trivia-doctors use it indirectly. Side effect watching doesn't explain it. Deferring to the doctor avoids education. Research value ties to safety, clarifying its relevance.

Question 3 of 5

The patient is receiving escitalopram (Lexapro) for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. The patient asks the nurse, 'I am just nervous, not depressed. Why am I taking an antidepressant medicine?' What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI, boosts serotonin, easing both anxiety and depression-shared neurochemistry (e.g., limbic dysregulation), per psychiatry. Calling it masked depression assumes unstated symptoms. Doctor's choice plus safety is true but less explanatory. Disorders don't always coexist-serotonin explains use, answering directly.

Question 4 of 5

A client takes calcium three times a day in the form of supplements. The nurse will advise the client to take the drug

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Calcium absorbs best with food-fat aids uptake, per pharmacokinetics-unlike empty stomach or tea (tannins bind). Zinc competes-separate dosing. Food optimizes, per guidance.

Question 5 of 5

A 29-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a regular yearly checkup. She has a history of a seizure disorder and has been taking an antiseizure medication for 8 years. She is also taking an oral contraceptive. She is in good health but complains that her gums seem to be overgrowing her teeth. Which of the following medications is likely responsible for her chief complaint?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of Phenytoin , an antiseizure drug. Estrogen and Progesterone in contraceptives don't cause this. Lamotrigine and Valproic acid (E) lack this effect. Phenytoin's long-term use induces gum overgrowth, fitting her 8-year history.

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