ATI RN
Drugs Affecting the Female Reproductive System Quizlet Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
Half-life (t1/2) is the time required to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because half-life is the time taken for the concentration of a drug in the plasma to decrease by 50%. This is a measure of the rate of elimination of a drug from the body. Choice B is incorrect because half-life does not specifically refer to metabolism. Choice C is incorrect because absorption is not related to half-life. Choice D is incorrect because half-life is not about binding to plasma proteins but about elimination from the body.
Question 2 of 5
If a drug is eliminated by first-order kinetics, what remains constant?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: First-order kinetics means the rate of drug elimination is proportional to the drug concentration. Clearance (choice B) represents the volume of plasma cleared of the drug per unit time, which remains constant in first-order kinetics. The other choices are incorrect because: A: In first-order kinetics, the amount of drug eliminated per unit time decreases as drug concentration decreases. C: The elimination half-life is independent of dose in first-order kinetics. D: Complete elimination within two half-lives is a general rule but not specific to first-order kinetics.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is teaching a pregnant client how to decrease the gastrointestinal distress she experiences with prenatal vitamins. Which instruction would the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eat when she takes her vitamins. This is because taking prenatal vitamins on an empty stomach can lead to gastrointestinal distress. Eating food along with the vitamins can help reduce the chances of nausea and other digestive issues. Choice A is incorrect as taking vitamins between meals may worsen gastrointestinal distress. Choice C, drinking orange juice, is incorrect as the acidity of the juice may exacerbate the stomach issues. Choice D, drinking milk, is also incorrect as dairy products can sometimes aggravate gastrointestinal problems. Eating a small snack or meal when taking prenatal vitamins is the most effective way to reduce discomfort.
Question 4 of 5
A primigravida client, 8 gestational weeks, is at the prenatal clinic for her first examination with complaints of nausea and vomiting 'every morning.' Which comment made by the client would indicate the need for further instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because chamomile tea is not recommended during pregnancy due to its potential to cause uterine contractions. A: Ginger cookies can help with nausea. B: Eating dry crackers before getting up can alleviate morning sickness. C: Avoiding foods with strong smells may reduce nausea. Therefore, D is the only choice that could potentially harm the pregnancy.
Question 5 of 5
A client received butorphanol 2 mg intravenously 10 minutes before delivery. Which nursing action is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have naloxone available. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist-antagonist that can cause respiratory depression in the mother and baby. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid effects, such as respiratory depression. Having naloxone available is crucial in case the client experiences respiratory depression post-delivery due to the butorphanol administration. Administering butorphanol subcutaneously (A) is not recommended as the client has already received it intravenously. Administering intravenous fluid bolus (C) may not directly address the potential respiratory depression caused by butorphanol. Placing oxygen 10 L by nasal cannula (D) may help with oxygenation but does not directly address the opioid effects of butorphanol.